Welcome to download the newest Pass4itsure 700-501 dumps:
Attention Please:Professional new version HP HP0-S32 PDF and VCE dumps can now free download on Flydumps.com,all are updated timely by our experts covering all HP HP0-S32 new questions and questions.100 percent pass your exam.
QUESTION 21
Which action is required at the guest operating system level to enable it to run on a virtual machine?
A. A key code must be loaded into the registry and validated by VMware.
B. The VMware driver must be loaded for full network support.
C. No action is required because VMware is transparent to the operating system.
D. A VMware license must be loaded on each guest.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
What can be used by a QoS policy to classify traffic? (Select two.)
A. packet size
B. egress port
C. TCP port number
D. TCP window size
E. VLAN ID
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 23
Which advantages do ACLs offer? (Select two.)
A. fewer necessary support staff
B. increased network security
C. smaller broadcast domain
D. reduced network complexity
E. improved network performance
Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 24
How many World Wide Names (WWNs) does Virtual Connect Manager make available?
A. 64 total available WWNs
B. 64 ranges for a total of 128 WWNs
C. 64 ranges for a total of 1024 WWNs
D. 128 ranges of 64 WWNS Correct Answer: C QUESTION 25
Click the Exhibit button.
Identify the port type shown in the blue outlined area.
A. fiber
B. SFP+
C. RJ-45
D. dedicated
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 26
A device with a non-compliant 802.1Q network adapter (NIC) is plugged into which type of switch port?
A. workstation
B. untagged
C. trunk
D. tagged Correct Answer: B QUESTION 27
What best describes the functionality of the Virtual Connect Ethernet module?
A. Layer 2 switch
B. Layer 3 switch
C. pass-thru module
D. Ethernet port aggregator
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 28
Click the Exhibit button.
What does the illustration reveal about the hardware configuration of the HP Integrity BL860c server blade? (Select two.)
A. The LOM is not a Flex-10 module.
B. The Flex-10 interface is in mezzanine Slot 2.
C. Ports 5 and 6 are preferred for connectivity.
D. Ports 7 through 12 are defective.
E. VLANs A and B are incorrectly configured.
QUESTION 29
What is the advantage of using Virtual Connect Flex-10 technology in a VMware environment?
A. It becomes tightly linked with VMware for better management through vCenter.
B. It eliminates the limit on NIC connections imposed by default on each VMware server.
C. It enables full VLAN support in VMware including multiple tagging functionality.
D. It allows bandwidth to be allocated as necessary to each VMware service or application.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30
What are valid reasons for creating trunk links between switches? (Select three.)
A. Standby link capabilities are available with dynamic trunks.
B. A greater number of VLANs can be supported.
C. Capacity is maximized by increasing the number of links available for data flow.
D. Guaranteed load balancing prevents unbalanced traffic load across links.
E. There is improved availability because of the lower risk of link failure.
F. The overall error count on the switch is decreased.
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 31
Click the Exhibit button.
What is the status of the Windows Server 2008 NICs under View Network Connections with the server profile configuration shown in the exhibit?
A. Only the NICs represented by Ports 1 and 2 will be shown.
B. All the NICs will display as connected.
C. All the NICs will display as disconnected.
D. Two NICs will display as connected and six will display as disconnected.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 32
What is the default global parameter setting for how Virtual Connect handles VLANs?
A. Native VLANs Tag mode
B. Tunnel VLANs Tag mode
C. Enable VLANs Tag mode
D. Map VLANs Tag mode Correct Answer: D QUESTION 33
What does a priority value of 101110 denote?
A. VLAN scheduling
B. Stacked QoS
C. Layer 2 QoS
D. Layer 3 QoS
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 34
When a Flex-10 server adapter is deployed in a Virtual Connect Flex-10 environment, how are the FlexNICs recognized by the operating system?
A. as individual 10GbE NICs, until the correct driver is loaded by the operating system at boot time
B. as individual NICs, after the correct license key has been loaded and verified by the Onboard Administrator
C. as individual 1GbE NICs, until the correct driver is loaded by the operating system at boot time
D. transparently, because the server ROM recognizes each FlexNIC as an individual NIC with its own driver Correct Answer: D QUESTION 35
How many BladeSystem c7000 enclosures are supported in a single Virtual Connect domain?
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
Which management interface provides the administrator with the most control over switch parameters and monitoring functions?
A. SNMP
B. Web browser
C. Menu
D. CLI
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
You are creating a connection between multiple server blades and an external switch on a single VLAN. All traffic from the servers is tagged. What must you create within Virtual Connect if it is globally set for VLAN Tunnel mode?
A. simple vNET with Tunnel mode option enabled
B. Shared Uplink Set
C. simple vNET with Tunnel mode option disabled
D. untagged uplink trunk
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
Where are broadcasts flooded in Layer 2 switches?
A. to only those nodes in the same subnet as the originating node
B. through all ports except the port the broadcast came in on
C. through all ports in the same VLAN except the port it came in on
D. through all ports and all VLANs on the switch
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39
Which tasks are only used for defining a Shared Uplink Set for Virtual Connect Ethernet? (Select three.)
A. Optionally set native VLAN.
B. Define server profile.
C. Assign one or multiple networks per server NIC.
D. Assign only one network per server NIC.
E. Select unassigned uplinks.
F. Specify VLAN names/IDs.
Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 40
What is required for a Layer 3 switch to route between directly connected VLANs? (Select two.)
A. IP routing must be globally enabled on the switch.
B. Dynamic Layer 3 routing protocol must be enabled and configured.
C. There must be multi-netted IP addresses on all VLAN interfaces on the switch.
D. An IP address must be configured for each VLAN that will be forwarded.
E. A DHCP helper address must be defined on each participating VLAN.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 41
In an IP subnet without VLANs, each subnet terminates at the interface. How are IP subnets with VLANs different?
A. VLAN IP subnets terminate at each port.
B. VLAN IP interfaces are more easily multi-netted with VLANs.
C. VLAN IP subnets allow for greater control with ACLs.
D. VLAN IP subnets are logically separated from the router.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
What is the function of the active member of a dynamic LACP trunk?
A. determines the trunk link used for each given Layer 2 node-to-node conversation
B. requests dynamic port utilization from the receiving node to the sending node to form the LACP trunk
C. listens for BPDUs and forms a dynamic trunk when a MAC address of the same partner is heard on multiple ports
D. sends BPDUs and forms a dynamic trunk if a partner hears its MAC address on multiple ports
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
What is a limitation of the VMware vNetwork standard switch?
A. Tagged VLANs are not supported in a virtual switch.
B. MAC forwarding tables are not implemented in a virtual switch.
C. Virtual machines cannot communicate through the virtual switch.
D. Spanning tree is not supported in a virtual switch.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
Which Virtual Connect tagging mode is limited to 320 VLANs per Virtual Connect Ethernet module?
A. Tunnel VLAN Tags
B. Tagged VLAN
C. Map VLAN Tags
D. Transparent VLAN Tags
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
On which criterion do standard ACLs provide security?
A. range of destination IP addresses
B. range of source IP addresses
C. IP precedence
D. ICMP and IGMP message types
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
Which parameters are part of a Bridge Protocol Data Unit (BPDU) transmission? (Select two.)
A. Switch Port ID
B. Port Duplex ID
C. Switch MAC address
D. Port POE parameters
E. Management IP address
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 47
Click the Exhibit button.
You have connected the cables as shown in the exhibit: What is the result of this configuration?
A. Switch 1, Ports 1, 3, 5, and 8 can communicate with all ports in Switch 2, except Port 8.
B. Connections between Switches 1 and 2 will cause a Layer 2 loop.
C. No VLAN 10 ports can communicate without a router or Layer 3 switch.
D. In Switch 1, only Ports 2, 7, and 8 can communicate together. Correct Answer: B QUESTION 48
Which advantage does Flex-10 technology provide?
A. increased Layer 2 switch port count
B. increased CPU performance
C. decreased number of interconnect modules
D. increased dynamic management functionality
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 49
Which status describes a virtual router interface?
A. It is only considered up if the state of the physical port is up.
B. It is always up and not directly associated with a physical port.
C. It is considered up if at least one VLAN’s port’s members is up.
D. It is only considered up if the status of the interface protocol is also up.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
Which topologies are in a typical enterprise network? (Select three.)
A. access
B. user
C. web
D. distribution
E. core
F. server
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 51
What is the purpose of a RADIUS server for switch management?
A. log file storage and consolidation
B. storage of configuration files and software images
C. central user database
D. SNMP management application server
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 52
Which OSI model layer uses frames? (Select two.)
A. Layer 2
B. Network
C. Layer 4
D. Session
E. Data Link
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 53
What are advantages of using Layer 3 to connect from the access layer to the core? (Select three.)
A. flatter network with fewer hops
B. equal cost balancing on all links with OSPF
C. extended broadcast domains
D. loop control using spanning tree
E. VRRP configuration not required
F. no link blocking involved
Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 54
Click the Exhibit button.
What will be the status of Trunk 1 and Trunk 2 in the exhibit?
A. One trunk will be in an active state and the other will be in a standby state.
B. Both trunks will be in an active state.
C. Both trunks will be in a standby state because the VLANs are duplicated in the switches.
D. Both trunks will be in a standby state because the VLANs are duplicated in Virtual Connect.
QUESTION 55
How can MSTP be configured to ensure that VLANs are not orphaned?
A. Ensure that the switches with the lowest MAC addresses are directly connected.
B. Allow the assignment of VLAN priorities on each individual interface to influence traffic flow.
C. Define the appropriate MSTP region version number in each switch’s configuration file
D. Allow the VLANs to be divided across multiple instances, each with unique root bridges and paths.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
At which OSI model layer does a router work?
A. Session
B. Transport
C. Application
D. Network
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
Which protocols are industry-standard switch protocols? (Select two.)
A. LLDP
B. CDP
C. LLTD
D. STP
E. EGRP
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 58
What must you define when configuring Virtual Connect Ethernet for a server blade that can support tagged Ethernet frames in VLANs 20, 30, 50, and 60?
A. a vNet in Map VLAN tags mode
B. a vNet in Tunnel VLAN tags mode
C. a Shared Uplink Set in Map VLAN tags mode
D. a Shared Uplink Set in Tunnel VLAN tags mode
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 59
How does a simple vNet handle VLAN tags in Map mode?
A. accepts only untagged frames from the servers or the switch
B. accepts only tagged frames from the servers and only untagged frames from the switch
C. accepts tagged or untagged frames from the switch and only untagged frames from the servers
D. accepts tagged or untagged frames from the servers or the switch
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 60
Which features differentiate Virtual Connect Ethernet interconnect modules from switches? (Select three.)
A. All changes affect the network.
B. They are managed with the servers.
C. They are part of the server system.
D. They are part of the infrastructure network.
E. Any changes are transparent to the network.
F. They are part of the LAN network.
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 61
Which command do you use to view information about the status and configuration of HP Integrity virtual machines?
A. hpvmconfig
B. hpvmstatus
C. hpvm -status
D. vmstatus
Correct Answer: B
Flydumps.com New HP HP0-S32 dumps are designed to help you to out in a short time. You can get Flydumps HP HP0-S32 dumps to pass your exam. To be a Microsoft professional makes you a better future.
Welcome to download the newest Pass4itsure 700-501 dumps: http://www.pass4itsure.com/700-501.html
http://www.ducktown.org/isc-cissp-cert-the-most-recommended-isc-cissp-dump-100-pass-with-a-high-score/