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QUESTION 1
You need to configure per-user security authentication for reporting against the Sales cube.What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Install PowerPivot.
B. Create Service Principal Names (SPNs).
C. Configure account delegation.
D. Set up the Unattended Service Account.
70-466 exam Correct Answer: AB
Section: [none]
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* From scenario:
/ Administrative staff from around the world will produce sales reports with Microsoft Excel 2010 based on the Sales cube.
/ Security requirements
When possible, the system must use Windows authentication for all database connections. The system must prevent users from querying data from outside of their region. The system must allow certain users to query data from multiple regions.
B: To use Kerberos authentication with SQL Server requires both the following conditions to be true: The client and server computers must be part of the same Windows domain, or in trusted domains. A Service Principal Name (SPN) must be registered with Active Directory, which assumes the role of the Key Distribution Center in a Windows domain. The SPN, after it is registered, maps to the Windows account that started the SQL Server instance service. If the SPN registration has not been performed or fails, the Windows security layer cannot determine the account associated with the SPN, and Kerberos authentication will not be used.
QUESTION 2
You need to configure the partition storage settings to support the reporting requirements.Which partition storage setting should you use?
A. DirectQuery
B. In-Memory
C. MOLAP
D. Low-latency MOLAP
E. Scheduled MOLAP
F. High-latency MOLAP
Correct Answer: D
Section: [none]
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
You need to develop the executive reports. What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Remove default values from all parameters.
B. Implement dataset query parameters to filter data.
C. Set the data source to use Windows authentication.
D. Set the data source to use stored Windows credentials.
E. Provide default values for all parameters.
F. Implement dataset filters to filter data.
70-466 dumps Correct Answer: BDE
Section: [none]
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* From scenario:
Deliver executive reports that are parameterized and rendered from report snapshots
BD: The data source that the shared dataset is based on has Prompt or Windows Integrated credentials.
QUESTION 4
You need to modify the Sales Regions hierarchy to meet the reporting requirements.Which S5A5 feature should you use?
A. Calculation
B. Translation
C. Action
D. Perspective
Correct Answer: B
Section: [none]
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
You need to configure SSRS to meet the maximum number of snapshots requirement. What should you do? (Each answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. In SharePoint Central Administration, set the System Snapshot Limit option to 5.
B. In Reporting Services Configuration Manager, set the System Snapshot Limit option to 5.
C. For each report, set the Limit number of snapshots option to 5.
D. Use PowerShell to set the System Snapshot Limit option to 5.
70-466 pdf Correct Answer: AC
Section: [none]
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: Reporting Services Service Applications are managed from SharePoint Central Administration. The Management and Properties pages allow you to update the configuration of the service application as well as common administration tasks.
Note:
* From scenario: The system must support report snapshots. The default maximum number of retained snapshots must not exceed five.
* System Snapshot Limit
Default is -1, which is no limit. Set a site-wide default value for the number of copies of report history to retain. The default value provides an initial setting that establishes the number of snapshots that can be stored for each report. You can specify different limits in property pages for specific reports. Not B: Use the Reporting Services Configuration Manager to configure a Reporting Services Native Mode installation. If you installed a report server by using the files-only installation option, you must use this tool to configure the server before you can use it. If you installed a report server by using the default configuration installation option, you can use this tool to verify or modify the settings that were specified during setup. Not D: SQL Server 2012 supports Windows PowerShell, which is a powerful scripting shell that lets administrators and developers automate server administration and application deployment.
QUESTION 6
You need to configure per-user security authentication for reporting against the Sales cube.What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Create Service Principal Names (SPNs).
B. Configure account delegation.
C. Enable forms-based authentication.
D. Enable mixed-mode authentication.
70-466 vce Correct Answer: AD
Section: [none]
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* From scenario:
/ Administrative staff from around the world will produce sales reports with Microsoft Excel 2010 based on the Sales cube.
/ Security requirements
When possible, the system must use Windows authentication for all database connections. The system must prevent users from querying data from outside of their region. The system must allow certain users to query data from multiple regions.
A: To use Kerberos authentication with SQL Server requires both the following conditions to be true: The client and server computers must be part of the same Windows domain, or in trusted domains. A Service Principal Name (SPN) must be registered with Active Directory, which assumes the role of the Key Distribution Center in a Windows domain. The SPN,
after it is registered, maps to the Windows account that started the SQL Server instance service. If the SPN registration has not been performed or fails, the Windows security layer cannot determine the account associated with the SPN, and Kerberos authentication will not be used.
D: For windows authentication we need to enable mixed-mode authentication

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Exam Code: 300-101
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing
Q&As: 484

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QUESTION 3
An engineer has configured a router to use EUI-64, and was asked to document the IPv6 address of the router. The router has the following interface parameters:
mac address C601.420F.0007
subnet 2001:DB8:0:1::/64
Which IPv6 addresses should the engineer add to the documentation?
A. 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FF:FE0F:7
B. 2001:DB8:0:1:FFFF:C601:420F:7
C. 2001:DB8:0:1:FE80:C601:420F:7
D. 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FE:800F:7
300-101  exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Extended Unique Identifier (EUI), as per RFC2373, allows a host to assign iteslf a unique 64-Bit IP Version 6 interface identifier (EUI-64). This feature is a key  benefit over IPv4 as it eliminates the need of manual configuration or DHCP as in the world of IPv4. The IPv6 EUI-64 format address is obtained through the 48-bit MAC address. The Mac address is first separated into two 24-bits, with one being OUI (Organizationally Unique Identifier) and the other being NIC specific. The
16-bit 0xFFFE is then inserted between these two 24-bits to for the 64-bit EUI address. IEEE has chosen FFFE as a reserved value which can only appear in EUI- 64 generated from the EUI-48 MAC address. Here is an example showing how the Mac Address is used to generate EUI.
300-101 dumps

Next, the seventh bit from the left, or the universal/local (U/L) bit, needs to be inverted. This bit identifies whether this interface identifier is universally or locally administered. If 0, the address is locally administered and if 1, the address is globally unique. It is worth noticing that in the OUI portion, the globally unique addresses assigned by the IEEE has always been set to 0 whereas the locally created addresses has 1 configured. Therefore, when the bit is inverted, it maintains its original scope (global unique address is still global unique and vice versa). The reason for inverting can be found in RFC4291 section 2.5.1.
QUESTION 4
For security purposes, an IPv6 traffic filter was configured under various interfaces on the local router. However, shortly after implementing the traffic filter, OSPFv3 neighbor adjacencies were lost. What caused this issue?
A. The traffic filter is blocking all ICMPv6 traffic.
B. The global anycast address must be added to the traffic filter to allow OSPFv3 to work properly.
C. The link-local addresses that were used by OSPFv3 were explicitly denied, which caused the neighbor relationships to fail.
D. IPv6 traffic filtering can be implemented only on SVIs.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
OSPFv3 uses link-local IPv6 addresses for neighbor discovery and other features, so if any IPv6 traffic filters are implemented be sure to include the link local address so that it is permitted in the filter list.
QUESTION 5
What is the purpose of the autonomous-system {autonomous-system-number} command?
A. It sets the EIGRP autonomous system number in a VRF.
B. It sets the BGP autonomous system number in a VRF.
C. It sets the global EIGRP autonomous system number.
D. It sets the global BGP autonomous system number.
300-101 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To configure the autonomous-system number for an Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) routing process to run within a VPN routing and forwarding (VRF) instance, use the autonomous-system command in address-family configuration mode. To remove the autonomous-system for an EIGRP routing process from within a VPN VRF instance, use the no form of this command. autonomous-system autonomous-system-number no autonomous-system autonomous-system-number
QUESTION 6
Which type of traffic does DHCP snooping drop?
A. discover messages
B. DHCP messages where the source MAC and client MAC do not match
C. traffic from a trusted DHCP server to client
D. DHCP messages where the destination MAC and client MAC do not match
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The switch validates DHCP packets received on the untrusted interfaces of VLANs with DHCP snooping enabled. The switch forwards the DHCP packet unless any of the following conditions occur (in which case the packet is dropped): The switch receives a packet (such as a DHCPOFFER, DHCPACK, DHCPNAK, or DHCPLEASEQUERY packet) from a DHCP server outside the network or firewall. The switch receives a packet on an untrusted interface, and the source MAC address and the DHCP client hardware address do not match. This check is performed only if the DHCP snooping MAC address verification option is turned on. · The switch receives a DHCPRELEASE or DHCPDECLINE message from an untrusted host with an entry in the DHCP snooping binding table, and the interface information in the binding table does not match the interface on which the message was received. The switch receives a DHCP packet that includes a relay agent IP address that is not 0.0.0.0. To support trusted edge switches that are connected to untrusted aggregation-switch ports, you can enable the DHCP option-82 on untrusted port feature, which enables untrusted aggregation- switch ports to accept DHCP packets that include option-82 information. Configure the port on the edge switch that connects to the aggregation switch as a trusted port. 
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101 dumps

Which command only announces the 1.2.3.0/24 network out of FastEthernet 0/0?
A. distribute list 1 out
B. distribute list 1 out FastEthernet0/0
C. distribute list 2 out
D. distribute list 2 out FastEthernet0/0
300-101 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Access list 2 is more specific, allowing only 1.2.3.0/24, whereas access list 1 permits all 1.0.0.0/8 networks. This question also asks us to apply this distribute list only to the outbound direction of the fast Ethernet 0/0 interface, so the correct command is “distribute list 2 out FastEthernet0/0.”

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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Question: 40
Amy is a sales person for your company and she earns her pay based on commission. Amy’s pay is known as variable pay or what other term?
A. Fixed pay
B. Commission only
C. Base pay
D. At risk pay
210-260 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
Amy’s pay is a variable pay because her level of income is based on how well she sells. When an employee is paid a variable pay it is also known as “at risk pay.”Answer option C is incorrect. Base pay is a fixed amount of pay for doing a job. Amy’s pay varies and isn’t fixed. Answer option A is incorrect. Fixed pay isn’t technically a HR Professional term, though it’s often
used with base pay. Answer option B is incorrect. Commission only pay is a slang to describe “at risk pay” or variable pay.
Question: 41
Jennifer is the HR Professional for her organization. Her supervisor, Dan, has asked Jennifer to find the Compa-ratio for Sam. Sam earns $40,000 as a mechanic, but the midpoint for a mechanic is actually $50,000. What is the Compa-ratio for Sam?
A. -$10,000
B. 80 percent
C. 125 percent
D. $10,000
Answer: B
Explanation:
The compa-ratio helps organizations determine how closely an employee’s pay is in synch with market. You must also consider the length of employment, service, skills, and other factors in the decision for compensation. The ratio is found by dividing the employees’ salary ($40,000) by the midpoint for the role ($50,000) for the ratio of 80 percent. Answer options A, D, and C are incorrect. These are not valid calculations for the compa-ratio.
Question: 42
You are a HR Professional for your organization. You have presented an idea to your staff. The staff members then discuss their ideas based on your presentation. All of the ideas are recorded and collectively ranked from most important to least important (or some other ordinal scale). Through this process a selection or forecast can be made for the organization. What forecasting technique have you used in this scenario?
A. Nominal group technique
B. Ratio analysis
C. Brainstorming
D. Delphi Technique
210-260 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
The nominal group technique is a facilitated workshop to present an idea, allow brainstorming of additional ideas, and then the solutions are ranked by the group. A forecast can then be created based on the outcome of the exercise. Answer option C is incorrect. This is more than just brainstorming as brainstorming does not begin with a presented idea or a ranking of ideas to predict an outcome. Answer option D is incorrect. The Delphi Technique uses rounds of anonymous surveys to build
consensus. Answer option B is incorrect. Ratio analysis is a mathematical forecasting technique using two or more variables to predict a likely outcome.
Question: 43
Which of the following are narrative methods of appraisal that require managers to describe the employee’s performance? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Daily review
B. Field review
C. Essay review
D. Critical incident review
Answer: D, B, and C
Explanation:
The narrative methods of appraisal that require managers to describe the employee’s performance are as follows:
1.Critical incident review
2.Field review
3.Essay review
The critical incident review requires that during the review period supervisors make notes of successful and unsuccessful performance issues for each employee. A field review appraisal may be conducted by someone other than the supervisor. This can be a person from outside the organization. In the essay review, the reviewer has to write a short description about each employee’s performance during the year. Answer option A is incorrect. There is no such narrative method of appraisal as daily review.
Question: 44
There are seven stages of internal consulting that an HR Professional must be familiar with. Consider this scenario: Frances has developed an HR training plan for her organization. The plan is comprehensive, aggressive, and will provide organizational development for all levels of employees in the company. Frances is presenting her plan to her organization’s management. What level of internal consulting is Fran participating in?
A. Reviewing, transitioning, and evaluating the project
B. Gaining agreement to the project plan
C. Presenting the findings and recommendations
D. Exploring the situation
210-260 pdf Answer: B
Explanation:
Frances is meeting with the management to gain their agreement on the project plan. The plan has not yet been approved.
Answer option C is incorrect. This choice is tempting, but as the plan is not yet approved, this choice is invalid. Answer option A is incorrect. This is the final stage of internal consulting; since the plan has not yet been implemented, this choice is incorrect. Answer option D is incorrect. Exploring the situation is the first stage of internal consulting. Once the HR Professional moves past this phase, the plan is developed and presented for approval.
Question: 45
Heather’s organization works with a labor union work force. Heather has heard rumors that the union has been trying to create a hot cargo agreement with a supplier. What is a hot cargo agreement?
A. It’s an agreement that an employer will stop doing business with a non-union business.
B. It’s a threat that the union will slow down processing orders for non-union shops.
C. It’s an agreement to rush orders for union-based businesses.
D. It forces suppliers to join the union.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A hot cargo agreement is an agreement an employer makes to stop doing business with other, usually non-union based businesses. Answer options D, B, and C are incorrect. These are’nt valid definitions of a hot cargo agreement.

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Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Q&As: 85

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QUESTION NO: 21
Which one of the following file types cannot be imported to Visual RF Plan?
A. dwg
B. jpg
C. tiff
D. gif
E. bmp
200-155 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 22
Aruba’s recommended best option for authenticating guest users is:
A. Temporary employee account
B. Kerberos
C. Captive Portal
D. Windows logon
E. Email address
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 23
Aliases are used in firewall policies to:
A. Apply firewall polices to ports in a stateful manner
B. Make firewall rules act like traditional ACLs
C. Ease readability and maintainability for source and destination addresses
D. Are a part of roles, not the firewall
E. Are applied as an action in a rule
200-155 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 24
An Aruba AP 125 is capable of supporting which of the following network types? (Select three)
A. 802.11b
B. 802.11n
C. 802.11a
D. 802.11w
E. 802.11p
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 25
What does SET ORIENTATION option do in the Visual RF Plan edit tool?
A. Set the horizontal plane on each floor
B. Give the option to resize a floor
C. Sets the North/South orientation of the building
D. Sets the proper vertical floor plan alignment
E. Allows the planner to set the directional antenna orientation
200-155 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 26
Which of the following is true of an Aruba Mobility Controller acting as a layer 3 router? (Select two):
A. The Mobility Controller is the client’s default router.
B. The Mobility Controller acts as a bridge.
C. DHCP can be provided by the network infrastructure or the Mobility Controller.
D. The Mobility Controller supports BGP.
E. OSPF must be configured
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 27
Which of these is NOT a valid license type? (Select two)
A. RFprotect
B. Application Security
C. Base AOS
D. PEF NG
E. Content Security
200-155 vce Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 28
In a Campus AP deployment, an access point has been provisioned statically with an IP address, subnet mask, default gateway and Controller IP address. Control Plane Security has been disabled. Both the Controller and the Access Point are using 6.1 firmware. If a 3rd party firewall is placed in between the AP and controller, what traffic would need to be allowed for the AP to boot successfully and broadcast Wireless Networks? (Select two)
A. DHCP
B. PAPI
C. GRE
D. SNMP
E. NTP
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 29
Web based captive portal can be authenticated by the following types of databases: (Select two)
A. Internal
B. PEAP
C. RADIUS
D. Kerberos
E. Tacacs
200-155 exam Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO 30
Why should the number of services on a server be limited to required services?
A. Every open service represents a potential vulnerability.
B. Closed systems require special connectivity services.
C. Running extra services makes machines more efficient.
D. All services are inherently stable and secure.
E. Additional services make machines more secure.
Answer:A
QUESTION NO 31
intrusion detection involves comparing traffic to known characteristics of malicious traffic, known as attack signatures.
A. Pattern matching B.
Statistical anomaly C.
Behavioral analysis D.
Host
E. Network
Answer:A
QUESTION NO 32
Which of the following calculations is used when selecting countermeasures?
A. Annualized Rate of Occurrence
B. Single Loss Expectancy
C. Annualized Loss Expectancy
D. Business Impact Analysis
E. Business Continuity Plan
200-155 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO 33
Which tool can be used to view the logical and physical topology of an MDS SAN?
A. Switch Manager
B. Device Manager
C. EWS
D. Fabric Manager
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34
What describes External DAS?
A. Host provided content addressed objects
B. Host provided data addressing
C. Array provided global access volumes
D. Array provided device management
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 35
What are the five core elements of the data center infrastructure?
A. Applications, Databases, JBOD, Networks, Storage Arrays
B. Applications, Databases, Servers/Operating Systems, SAN, JBOD
C. Applications, Databases, Servers/Operating Systems, DAS, NAS
D. Applications, Databases, Servers/Operating Systems, Networks, Storage Arrays
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36
Which technology supports high availability of data?
A. Clustering
B. Flushing
C. Journaling
D. Caching
200-155 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
Which task is an example of monitoring the health of a data center object?
A. Viewing rates of data transmission of all disks
B. Detecting when a file system has reached critical utilization
C. Examining the operational status of a device port
D. Listing the servers attached to a particular storage array
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
A company has two SAN islands approximately one mile apart. The company wants to link both sites over its public WAN connection. The fabrics must remain separate but allow device access from either site. Which protocol is recommended to connect the sites?
A. FCIP
B. FCP
C. iFCP
D. iSCSI
200-155 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39
What are the three key data center management activities that are interdependent?
A. Manageability, Integrity, Cost
B. Provisioning, Monitoring, Reporting
C. Installation, Configuration, Problem Solving
D. Scalability, Accessibility, Security
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40
A Copy on First Access replica has been created. The source devices are being used for production operations. When is data copied from the source to the target?
A. A read or write issued for the first time to a location on the source
B. A write issued for the first time to a location on the source
C. All I/Os issued to a location on the source
D. A read issued for the first time from a location on the source
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
Which statement describes logical volumes?
A. May consist of interleaved physical disks
B. May be a partition of a larger physical disk
C. May be presented to a host as several larger physical disks
D. May consist of several file systems
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
What is a physical component of a storage environment?
A. Bus
B. Application
C. Operating system
D. Protocol
Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: 70-417
Exam Name: Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012
Q&As: 427

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QUESTION 15
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012.
You promote Server1 to a domain controller.
You need to view the service location (SRV) records that Server1 registers in DNS.
What should you do on Server1?
A. Open the Netlogon.dns file.
B. Run ipconfig /displaydns.
C. Run Get-DnsServerDiagnostics.
D. Open the SrC. sys file.
70-417  exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Netlogon.dns – If you are using non-Microsoft DNS servers to support Active Directory, you can verify SRV
locator resource records by viewing Netlogon.dns. Netlogon.dns is located in the %systemroot%\System32
\Config folder. You can use a text editor, such as Microsoft Notepad, to view this file.
The first record in the file is the domain controller’s Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) SRV
record.
References:
QUESTION 16
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains a member
server named Server1 and a domain controller named DC2. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
On DC2, you open Server Manager and you add Server1 as another server to manage.
From Server Manager on DC2, you right-click Server1 as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-417 dumps

You need to ensure that when you right-click Server1, you see the option to run the DHCP console.
What should you do?
A. On DC2, install the Role Administration Tools.
B. On DC2 and Server1, run winrmquickconfig.
C. In the domain, add DC2 to the DHCP Administrators group.
D. On Server1, install the Feature Administration Tools.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
You need to install the feature administrations tools for the dhcp . Need to install DHCP management tools
on DC2 then you will have access to dhcp management.
QUESTION 17
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains three
servers named Server1, Server2, and Server3.
You create a server group named ServerGroup1.
You discover the error message shown in the following exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-417 dumps

You need to ensure that Server2 can be managed remotely by using Server Manager.
What should you do?
A. On Server2, run the netdom.exe command.
B. On Server2, run the net stop netlogon command, and then run the net start netlogon command.
C. On DC1, run the Enable-PSSessionConfigurationcmdlet.
D. On Server2, modify the membership of the Remote Management Users group.
70-417 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
This is a security issue. To be able to access Server2 remotely through Server Manager the user need to
be a member of the Remote Management Users group.
References:
Training Guide: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012, Chapter 3 Server Remote Management,
Lesson 1: Server Manager, p. 90-92
QUESTION 18
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server
2012 R2. The domain contains a server named Server1.
You install the Windows PowerShell Web Access gateway on Server1.
You need to provide administrators with the ability to manage the servers in the domain by using the
Windows PowerShell Web Access gateway.
Which two cmdlets should you run on Server1? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose
two.)
A. Install PswaWebApplication
B. Add PswaAuthorizationRule
C. Set-WSManlnstance
D. Set-WSManQuickConfig
E. Set-BCAuthentication
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Configure PowerShell Web Access Gateway using the following PowerShell Cmdlet.
Install-PswaWebApplication UseTestCertificate
Running the cmdlet installs the Windows PowerShell Web Access web application within the IIS Default
Web Site container. The cmdlet creates the infrastructure required to run Windows PowerShell Web
Access on the default website
Add-PswaAuthorizationRule
Adds a new authorization rule to the Windows PowerShell Web Access authorization rule set.
Parameters:
ComputerGroupName
ComputerName
ConfigurationName
RuleName
UserGroupName
UserName
Credential (Windows Server 2012 R2 and later)
References:
QUESTION 19
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server
named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 and a server named Server2 that runs Windows Server
2008 R2 Service Pack 1 (SP1). Both servers are member servers. On Server2, you install all of the software required to ensure that Server2 can be managed remotely from Server Manager. You need to ensure that you can manage Server2 from Server1 by using Server Manager. Which two tasks should you perform on Server2? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Run the Enable-PSRemotingcmdlet.
B. Run the Configure-SMRemoting.psl script.
C. Run the Enable-PSSessionConfigurationcmdlet.
D. Run the Set-ExecutionPolicycmdlet.
E. Run the systempropertiesremote.exe command.
70-417 pdf Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To configure Server Manager remote management by using Windows PowerShell On the computer that
you want to manage remotely, open a Windows PowerShell session with elevated user rights.
In the Windows PowerShell session, type the following, and then press Enter. Set-ExecutionPolicy –
ExecutionPolicyRemoteSigned (D) Type the following, and then press Enter to enable all required firewall
rule exceptions.  Configure-SMRemoting.ps1 -force enable (B)
QUESTION NO: 20
Which two features are customizable in backup reports? (Select two.)
A. page orientation
B. report header
C. report font
D. page size
E. report footer
Answer: B,E
QUESTION NO: 21
Which two configuration changes can be made in order to reduce network traffic within a Central Administration Server (CAS) environment? (Select two.)
A. keep the catalog files centralized
B. increase the interval time for job status updates
C. ensure that jobs created on the Managed Media Server (MMS) are monitored from the CAS
D. ensure jobs logs and histories are being sent to the CAS less frequently
E. enable some alerts to be rolled up to the CAS less frequently
70-417 vce Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 22
A backup administrator has noticed that backups to a tape drive are running slow. What should be
done to improve performance?
A. enable the option ‘Write SCSI pass-through mode’, which allows Symantec Backup Exec 2010
to write directly to the drive
B. configure the buffer size to be a higher value than what is currently configured
C. set the Remote Agent Priority to High which dedicates more CPU cycles for the backup
D. lower the buffer count on the tape device to ensure data is written to the device more quickly
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 70-486
Exam Name: Developing ASP.NET MVC 4 Web Applications
Q&As: 136

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QUESTION 56
Which of the following is a level for maturing the Quality Assurance Processes?
A. Controlling
B. Verification
C. Business Requirements
D. Relational Requirements
70-486 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 57
The purpose of the ___________ is to define the work activities that will accomplish the business
objectives.
A. Management Plan
B. Business Plan
C. Quality Plan
D. Work Plan
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 58
It is very easy to distinguish between accidental loss and intentional loss, with respect to security activities.
A. True
B. False
70-486 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 59
Which of the following should be kept under version control?
A. Code
B. Procedures
C. Plans
D. Operating Systems
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 60
COQ is also known as ‘Price of Non-Conformance’.
A. True
B. False
70-486 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 61
Customer surveys are:
A. Objective Baselines
B. Subjective Baselines
C. Predictive Baselines
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 62
When making a judgment while compliance monitoring, experience plays a larger role when:
A. The standard is objective
B. The standard is subjective
C. Standards should not be a factor
D. None of the above
70-486 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 63
Which one of the following best describes “mission statement” for a company or an organization?
A. How will we show success?
B. How will we achieve objectives?
C. Why do we exist?
D. What is our long term program?
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 64
If a programmer follows a series of steps to write a computer program, the programmer is following:
A. A Workbench
B. A Procedure
C. A Standard
D. Entry Criteria
E. Exit Criteria
70-486 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 65
When dealing with a complaint, to get on the same physical wavelength with a client you should:
A. Stand if they are standing
B. Provide your undivided attention
C. Physically show interest
D. React positively
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 66
Which one of the following is NOT a component of CMMi maturity levels?
A. Common Practices
B. Specific Goals
C. Process Areas
D. Generic Goals
70-486 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 67
If your IT organization adopted function points as the means to measure program size, this would enable
you to estimate programming staff because you would know a program of 200 function points is twice as
large as a program of 100 function points. This type of data is called:
A. Nominal Data
B. Ordinal Data
C. Interval Data
D. Ratio Data
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 68
Unit testing, system testing and user acceptance testing are examples of:
A. Verification
B. Validation
70-486 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 69
The core activity of Process Definition is not only defining the process but also:
A. Performing walkthroughs of the process before publication
B. Piloting the process
C. Marketing the process
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 70
In statistics, the mean and median are called:
A. SPC
B. Measures of Central Tendency
C. Variance
D. Standard Deviation
E. Control Chart
70-486 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 71
One of the attributes of an effective security control is dividing responsibility for any event among two or
more people. This security attribute is called:
A. Simplicity
B. Fail Safe
C. Open Design
D. Separation of Privilege
E. Psychological Acceptability
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 72
Which of the following statements completely interprets the ‘Act’ phase of PDCA cycle?
A. Correct the abnormality and prevent its recurrence
B. Correct the abnormality
C. Prevent the recurrence of abnormality
D. Follow quality control activities
70-486 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 73
Management tools:
A. Have a Mathematical Focus
B. Facilitate Decision Making
C. Require Automation
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 74
Tracking the status of each requirement throughout the development and test phases is called:
A. Requirements Checking
B. Requirements Verification
C. In-Process Review
D. Requirements Tracing
E. Phase-End Review
70-486 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 75
Acceptance Testing is normally designed and performed by:
A. The Developer
B. The Quality Control Manager
C. The Product Development Manager
D. The User
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 76
In control charts, accepted practice uses a width of _________________________around the population
mean (?) to establish the control limits.
A. Plus or minus one standard deviation
B. Plus or minus two standard deviations
C. Plus or minus three standard deviations
D. Plus or minus four standard deviations
E. Plus or minus five standard deviations
70-486 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 77
The acronym CMM stands for:
A. Continuous Maturity Model
B. Computer Methods and Models
C. Capability Maturity Model
D. Change Management Model
E. Continuous Maturity Methods
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 78
Out of the three critical aspects of Toyota’s JIT concept, which one is the most important?
A. Reduction of Waste
B. Perfect Quality
C. Employee Involvement
D. None of the above
70-486 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 79
Security passwords should be changed:
A. On a regular basis
B. Whenever somebody leaves an area
C. When password compromise is suspected
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: D

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Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 118

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QUESTION 23
Identify the injection attack represented in the diagram below:
A. XPath Injection Attack
B. XML Request Attack
C. XML Injection Attack
D. Frame Injection Attack
300-135 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
Which of the following approaches to vulnerability assessment relies on the administrator providing baseline of system configuration and then scanning continuously without incorporating any information found at the time of scanning?
A. Service-based Assessment Solutions
B. Product-based Assessment Solutions
C. Tree-based Assessment
D. Inference-based Assessment
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
The Web parameter tampering attack is based on the manipulation of parameters exchanged between client and server in order to modify application data, such as user credentials and permissions, price and quantity of products, etc. Usually, this information is stored in cookies, hidden form fields, or URL Query Strings, and is used to increase application functionality and control. This attack takes advantage of the fact that many programmers rely on hidden or fixed fields (such as a hidden tag in a form or a parameter in a URL) as the only security measure for certain operations. Attackers can easily modify these parameters to bypass the security mechanisms that rely on them. What is the best way to protect web applications from parameter tampering attacks?
A. Validating some parameters of the web application
B. Minimizing the allowable length of parameters
C. Using an easily guessable hashing algorithm
D. Applying effective input field filtering parameters
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Vulnerability assessment is an examination of the ability of a system or application, including the current security procedures and controls, to withstand assault.
What does a vulnerability assessment identify?
A. Disgruntled employees
B. Weaknesses that could be exploited
C. Physical security breaches
D. Organizational structure
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
This is a group of people hired to give details of the vulnerabilities present in the system found after a penetration test. They are elite and extremely competent penetration testers and intrusion analysts. This team prepares a report on the vulnerabilities in the system, attack methods, and how to defend against them.
What is this team called?
A. Blue team
B. Tiger team
C. Gorilla team
D. Lion team
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
ARP spoofing is a technique whereby an attacker sends fake (“spoofed”) Address Resolution Protocol
(ARP) messages onto a Local Area Network. Generally, the aim is to associate the attacker’s MAC
address with the IP address of another host (such as the default gateway), causing any traffic meant for
that IP address to be sent to the attacker instead. ARP spoofing attack is used as an opening for other
attacks.
What type of attack would you launch after successfully deploying ARP spoofing?
A. Parameter Filtering
B. Social Engineering
C. Input Validation
D. Session Hijacking
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
Amazon Consulting Corporation provides penetration testing and managed security services to companies. Legality and regulatory compliance is one of the important components in conducting a successful security audit. Before starting a test, one of the agreements both the parties need to sign relates to limitations, constraints, liabilities, code of conduct, and indemnification considerations between the parties. Which agreement requires a signature from both the parties (the penetration tester and the company)?
A. Non-disclosure agreement
B. Client fees agreement
C. Rules of engagement agreement
D. Confidentiality agreement
300-135 vce Correct Answer: D
 QUESTION 30
QinQ provides a simplified Layer 2 VPN tunnel.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
Which statements about QinQ are true? (Select 2 Answers)
A. QinQ saves VLANs on the public network.
B. To avoid VLAN conflict, the customer must negotiate with the service provider before modifying the
VLANs on its private network.
C. When the service provider upgrades the network, the configurations on the user network do not need to
be modified.
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 32
Some vendors set the TPID value in the outer VLAN tag of QinQ packets to the non-protocol value.
To be compatible with these vendors’ devices, the TPID value on Huawei switches is adjustable.
Which is the default value of the TPID value on Huawei switches?
A. 0x9200
B. 0x9100
C. 0x8200
D. 0x8100
300-135 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
Which types of interfaces can be configured with selective QinQ? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Access interface
B. Trunk interface
C. Hybrid interface
D. dot1q-tunnel interface
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 34
The STP protocol can prevent broadcast storms caused by loops on the Layer 2 network.
A. True
B. False
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
The STP protocol cannot prevent MAC address table flapping caused by loops on the Layer 2 network.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
Which are the port roles defined in STP?
A. Root Port
B. Designated Port
C. Alternate Port
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
How many port states are defined by STP?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
Each STP switch has a unique switch ID. Which two entries does the switch ID contain?
A. Two-byte switch priority
B. Six-byte MAC address
C. Two-byte switch priority and six-byte MAC address
D. Six-byte switch priority and six-byte MAC address
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39
On an STP network, before the interface status transits from non-forwarding to forwarding, how many
Forward Delay intervals does the interface wait for?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
300-135 vce Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: 640-911
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking
Updated: Aug 23, 2017
Q&As: 208

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QUESTION 13
What are two features of a bridge? (Choose two.)
A. Reliable transmission
B. Operate at OSI Layer 2
C. Operate at OSI Layer 3
D. Create multiple broadcast domains
E. Create multiple collision domains
F. Flood input packets to all ports
G. Drop IP packets with invalid destination ports
640-911 examCorrect Answer: BE
QUESTION 14
What are three reasons that switches supersede bridges? (Choose three.)
A. Smaller frame buffers decrease latency.
B. Forward, filter, or flood frames.
C. Multiple simultaneous communications between ports.
D. Larger inspection engine allows for higher throughput.
E. Switches have many ports.
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 15
What action does a switch take if the destination MAC address is unknown?
A. Discard frame
B. Send ICMP unreachable message to source
C. Flood packet on all ports
D. Compare destination IP address against an ACL to determine if it is permitted
E. Send gratuitous ARP on all ports and wait for reply before forwarding
640-911 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
Which statement describes the purpose of the MAC address forwarding table of a switch?
A. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine the best route to a destination.
B. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine the output port.
C. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine if the packet is routable.
D. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine if access control permits the packet.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
What are two attributes of a VLAN? (Choose two.)
A. A VLAN defines a collision domain.
B. A VLAN defines a broadcast domain.
C. Broadcasts are flooded to all VLANs.
D. Collisions are flooded to all VLANs.
E. A Layer 3 device is required to route packets between VLANs.
F. A Layer 2 device is required to route packets between VLANs.
640-911 pdf Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 18
Which four statements indicate unique properties of VLAN 1 on Cisco Nexus switches? (Choose four.)
A. VLAN 1 is used to flood multicast traffic.
B. VLAN 1 cannot be deleted.
C. VLAN 1 is used for Cisco Discovery Protocol.
D. VLAN 1 is used for VTP advertisements.
E. VLAN 1 defines a collision domain.
F. VLAN 1 defines a broadcast domain.
Correct Answer: BCDF
QUESTION 19
Which command displays the Trunking Native Mode VLAN on port Ethernet 1/18?
A. show running-config switchport e1/18
B. show running-config e1/18 switchport
C. show interface e1/18
D. show interface e1/18 switchport
E. show interface e1/18 native
640-911 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
Which VTP mode disallows the creation of local VLANs?
A. transparent
B. tunneling
C. server
D. client
E. off
F. native
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
Which three statements are true concerning RFC 1918 IP addresses? (Choose three.)
A. They are globally routable.
B. They are not globally routable.
C. They must not be filtered at Internet border interfaces.
D. They should be filtered at Internet border interfaces.
E. They include 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/16, and 192.168.1.0/24.
F. They include 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/12, and 192.168.0.0/16.
640-911 exam Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 22
Which two statements describe the purpose of RFC 1918? (Choose two.)
A. Establish a range of IP addresses that are dedicated to the growing use of multicast video.
B. Establish a range of IP addresses that are dedicated to the growing use of peer-to-peer file- sharing
applications.
C. Establish a range of IP addresses that are dedicated to use on internal networks.
D. Establish a range of IP addresses to address the shrinking pool of globally routable addresses.
E. Delay the transition to IPv6.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 23
What are three reasons to migrate from IPv4 to IPv6? (Choose three.)
A. IPv6 eliminates the requirement for NAT.
B. IPv6 includes enough IP addresses to allocate more than four billion IP addresses to every person on
earth.
C. IPv6 eliminates the need for VLANs.
D. Hosts can be assigned an IP address without DHCP.
E. Hosts can be assigned an IP address without DNS.
640-911 dumps Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 24
Which two options describe services that are provided by TCP? (Choose two.)
A. session multiplexing
B. EtherTypes identify destination services
C. connection-oriented
D. best-effort packet delivery
E. binary translation
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 25
Which two options describe services that are provided by UDP? (Choose two.)
A. session multiplexing
B. segmentation
C. connection-oriented
D. reliable packet delivery
E. best-effort packet delivery
640-911 pdf Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 26
Which two options represent a subnet mask that allows for a maximum of 14 available host addresses on a
subnet? (Choose two.)
A. 255.255.255.240
B. 255.255.255.192
C. 255.255.240.0
D. 255.255.192.0
E. /14
F. /21
G. /26
H. /28
Correct Answer: AH
QUESTION 27
What is the binary value of the hexadecimal number 0x511?
A. 10100011001
B. 10101010101
C. 10110010001
D. 10100010001
E. 10100110011
640-911 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
What is the binary value of the decimal number 1263?
A. 11011101101
B. 10011101111
C. 10011101011
D. 11010001111
E. 10111101111
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
Which option is an example of a distance vector routing protocol?
A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. ARP
D. IS-IS
640-911 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
Which option is an example of an advanced distance vector routing protocol?
A. EIGRP
B. RIP
C. OSPF
D. ARP
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
Which option is an example of a link-state routing protocol?
A. EIGRP
B. RIP
C. OSPF
D. ARP
640-911 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
What is the maximum allowable hop count for RIPv1?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 15
E. 16
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
What is the default periodic interval at which RIPv1 sends routing updates?
A. 15 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 45 seconds
D. 60 seconds
E. 90 seconds
F. RIPv1 only sends routing updates when the topology changes.
640-911 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
What does RIPv1 send to its neighbors?
A. Information about changed routes
B. Information about new routes
C. The entire routing table
D. Information about deleted routes
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 35
What are two advantages of employing an external router for inter-VLAN routing over an IEEE 802.1Q
trunk link? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 3 functionality is not required on the switch.
B. The router facilitates communication between VLANs.
C. The single traffic path is optimized.
D. Latency is reduced as packets leave the switch.
E. Equal-Cost Multipath is supported.
640-911 vce Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 36
Which statement correctly describes an SVI?
A. An SVI is a Layer 2 interface and uses a dynamic MAC address.
B. An SVI cannot have an IP address assigned to it.
C. An SVI provides Layer 3 routing between VLANs.
D. Each switch port requires an SVI assignment.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 37
What is the Cisco Nexus Operating System command to define a port as a Layer 3 port?
A. Port routed
B. No switchport
C. l3 switchport
D. Port switching off
640-911 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
Which statement is correct regarding a routed port on a multilayer switch?
A. A routed port requires an SVI definition.
B. Routed ports cannot be configured on a multilayer switch that uses SVIs.
C. A maximum of 32 routed ports can be provisioned on a given multilayer switch.
D. A routed port is a physical port that supports Layer 3 routing.
640-911 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39
On a new Cisco Nexus switch, you receive an error message when you attempt to create an SVI. What is
the first command you must use to create the SVI?
A. Interface vlan (vlan_id)
B. Vlan (vlan_id)
C. Feature svi
D. Interface routed
Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: NSE6
Exam Name: Fortinet Network Security Expert 6
Updated: Aug 13, 2017
Q&As: 49

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QUESTION NO: 9
A company is considering moving its production offshore to Shenzhen, China. The HR Manager is
tasked with identifying the supply and demand for skilled labor, the costs of recruiting workers, and
the turnover trends in the area. When conducting this environmental scan, which of the following
types of influences best describes these indicators?
A. Political factors
B. Economic factors
C. International factors
D. Labor market factors
NSE6 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10
Productivity measures the and of work done, taking into account the cost of the
resources it took to do the work
A. quantity and quality
B. output and capital
C. input and output
D. output and quantity
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 11
Which of the following is a measure of recruiting effectiveness in the long term?
A. Cost per applicant hired
B. Quantity of applicants
C. Average time required to recruit applicants
D. Turnover of hires
NSE6 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 12
A good MBO (management by objectives) shares all of the following aspects EXCEPT:
A. Periodic feedback about objectives
B. Goals which align with corporate level goals and strategies
C. Goals are established by the supervisor/manager
D. Goals which are measurable
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 13
You are assisting a highly talented engineering architect in repatriation after a short-term
international assignment in Bangalore, India After are re-entry, there are no appropriate positions
available in the organization at headquarters. Which of the following goals is NOT a potential goal
for redeploying this individual?
A. Maintain employee morale in the host country
B. Building a global workforce
C. Sharing the recently acquired knowledge
D. Retaining the talent for the future
NSE6 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14
A manager works very closely with his subordinates to create an effective working environment.
Once a new person is hired, he works with the employee to set realistic goals for the short-tern
and long-term. In addition, he continuously works employees to discuss career paths and career
ambitions. He is constantly coaching, counseling, and mentoring. Once his employees reach
goals, he rewards them through merit increase/bonuses, offering job responsibilities with new
challenges, and publicly recognizes their achievement in cross-departmental meetings. Which of
the following motivational theories is least utilized in his management approach to motivating his
employee?
A. B.F. Skinner’ Theory of Behavioral Reinforcement
B. McGregor’s Theory X and Theory Y
C. Vroom’s Expectancy Theory
D. Self-Effcacy Theory
E. Herzberg’s Motivation-Hygiene Theory
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 15
Which of the following factors dose ONT affect the trainability of individuals?
A. Perception of environment
B. Time
C. Ability
D. Motivation
NSE6 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 16
Which of the following is NOT a common mistake in selection procedures?
A. Ignore long-term strategic considerations and goals for the position
B. Adjusting global competencies to local cultures
C. Use insufficient or not valid selection criteria
D. Choose final candidate too quickly based on time constraints
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 17
Which of the following factors is an incentive for company to pursue localization?
A. Market reponsiveness
B. Brand integrity
C. Product quality
D. Economies of scale
NSE6 exam Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
An organization has decided to utilize a geographic organizational structure. It has several offices
throughout Europe and one office in Asia, in particular, in Shenzhen, China. Although the
European offices are very well integrated into headquarters, the office in China has been running
fairly independently. Of the locations, this office has been the most resistant to expatriates
entering and to developing local talent, In fact, headquarters suspects that most of the hiring and
promotions have been based on nepotism. Which of the following gaps does the China office NOT
exhibit in this scenario?
A. Retention gap
B. Skill & competency gap
C. Knowledge sharing gap
D. Succession gap
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 19
Which of the following does NOT represent a strategic financial goal for a global company?
A. Effectively manage currency exchange fluvtuations
B. Decrease cost of goods
C. New market penetration
D. Increase revenue
NSE6 dumps Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20
A company has decided to terminate the employment of an executive for performance reasons.
The HP Manager to create a severance package. Which of the following factors would NOT be
considered when creating the final severance package?
A. Severity of his lock of performance
B. Length of service at company
C. Total compensation in relation to severance package
D. Notice pay protection laws
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 21
Which of the following is NOT a reason why individuals refuse international assignments?
A. Personal familial issues, like spouse is reluctant to change careers or children are already in
high school
B. No clear, identified path for career development guaranteed after the assignment
C. Financial incentives are inadequate
D. Company’s poor record of successful expatriations programs
NSE6 pdf Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 22
Which of the following challenges is faced PRIMARILY when developing a global competency
model?
A. Base model only on past experience
B. View the global plan as a sum of individual country plans
C. Differences in perceptions of various attributes
D. Balance the day-to-day demands with strategic plans
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 23
A U.S. based high tech company has built a R&D office in Bangalore, India. Four years have
passed since the Greenfield operation was successfully built. During this time, the new location
has taken on higher priority engineering projects and trained and developed managerial skills of its
newly recruited manages in Bangalore.
Headquarters wants the office to take on a new engineering project that would expand its business
in the U.S. by adding a new product line. This project has been identified as the most important
objective for the corporation in the mid-term. The project is still in the phase of identifying
specifications and developing milestones, where the engineering management team is working
closely with the product manager. Which of the following types international assignment is the
most appropriate for the product manager during this phase of the project?
A. Extended business travel
B. Long-term expatriation
C. International commuting
D. Localized transfer
NSE6 vce Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 24
Which of the following measures the level of learning achieved by the participants of a training
program?
A. 360-degree feedback process
B. Performance tests
C. Performance appraisals
D. Pre-/post measures
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 25
Which of the following processes attempts to determine the relative worth of jobs within an
organization?
A. Job design
B. Job evaluation
C. Job analysis
D. Comparable worth
NSE6 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 26
The HR Director of a multinational, U.S.-based company is proposing a staffing plan where foreign
offices are staffed with as local nationals as possible instead of expatriates. Which of the following
are NOT business justifications for this proposal?
A. Building local expertise competencies
B. Compliance with U.S. tax regulations
C. Favorable tax treatment by local government
D. Realization of cost savings
Answer: B
Explanation:

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Exam Code: 300-370
Exam Name: Troubleshooting Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks
Updated: Aug 16, 2017
Q&As: 60

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Pass4isture Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-370 Dumps Exam Q&As:

Topic 1, Volume A
QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?
A. Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests
B. Menu-driven range of self help and service requests
C. Web front-end
D. A direct interface into the back end process handling software
300-370 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 2
What is a RACI model used for?
A. Defining roles and responsibilities
B. Monitoring services
C. Performance analysis
D. Recording Configuration Items
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
B. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management
Databases (CMDB)
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
300-370 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 4
The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called
the?
A. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
B. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 5
In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management,
Availability Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?
A. Service Transition
B. Service Design
C. Service Strategy
D. Service Operation
300-370 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 6
Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill
tominimize the cost of training them
B. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more
technical or supervisory roles
C. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements
are low and this helps to minimize salaries
D. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost
effective to keep them in the role where they have been trained
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 7
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management
Databases (CMDB)
B. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
C. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
300-370 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 8
Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service
Asset?
A. Services and Infrastructure
B. Applications and Infrastructure
C. Resources and Capabilities
D. Utility and Warranty
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 9
Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?
A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
B. The design of Market Spaces
C. The design of new or changed services
D. The design of the technology architecture and management systems
300-370 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 10
Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
B. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service
Portfolio
D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 11
Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning
Contracts?
A. Service Catalogue Manager
B. IT Designer/Architect
C. Process Manager
D. Supplier Manager
300-370 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 12
Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across the Lifecycle?
A. 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D
B. 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B
C. 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
D. 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 13
A plan for managing the end of a supplier contract should be created when?
A. The contract is being negotiated
B. The contract is about to be ended
C. The Supplier Manager decides that there is a risk the contract might need to end soon
D. The contract has been agreed
300-370 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 14
Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A. A change to the service provider’s established policies and guidelines
B. A pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedure
C. A change that is made as the result of an audit
D. A change that correctly follows the required change process
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 15
The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
C. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
D. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
300-370 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 16
Which of the following module would be MOST useful in helping to define an organizational
structure?
A. RACI model
B. Service Model
C. Continual Service improvement (CSI) model.
D. The Deming Cycle
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 17
Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill
tominimize the cost of training them
B. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost
effective to keep them in the role where they have been trained
C. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more
technical or supervisory roles
D. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements
are low and this helps to minimize salaries
300-370 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 18
Which of the following questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
1. How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
2. What services to offer and to whom?
3. What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
A. 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 19
Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the
business by?
A. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for
B. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased
C. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
D. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database
300-370 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 20
How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?
A. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
B. There should be a single Plan,then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times
to implement Continual Improvement
C. There should be a single Plan and Do,then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times
to implement Continual Improvement
D. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 21
Within the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) 7 step improvement process, data needs to be
gathered and analyzed from which other area of the lifecycle in order to answer the question “Did
we get there?”?
A. Service Strategy
B. Service Design
C. Service Operation
D. Service Transition
300-370 pdf Answer: C

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