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Latest effective Cisco CCNP Cloud 300-460 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
A cloud engineer is implementing a new UCS B-series infrastructure and has physically connected the
equipment, powered it up, and configured UCSM management connectivity. Which port type must be
configured on the fabric interconnects to allow for chassis communication?
A. appliance
B. Fibre Channel storage
C. uplink
D. server
E. storage
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 2
An engineer is creating WWPN pools to use for vHBAs. Which WWPN must the engineer use?
A. 20:00:20:25:B5:XX:XX:XX
B. 20:XX:XX:25:B5:00:00:00
C. 10:00:00:25:B5:XX:XX:XX
D. 20:00:00:25:B5:XX:XX:XX
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/1-3- 1/
b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_1_3_1/UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_1_3_1_c hapter22.pdf

QUESTION 3
A Cisco USC Director administrator is configuring his pod on the Physical > Compute Tab. Which three
tabs are available under this menu? (Choose three.)
A. UCS Chassis
B. Datastore Capacity Report
C. CloudSense
D. Chargeback
E. Compute Servers
F. Compute Accounts
Correct Answer: AEF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
Which two statements about Fibre Channel zoning in Cisco UCS are true? (Choose two.)
A. Zoning is configured on a per-VSAN basis.
B. Cisco UCS does not support zoning.
C. Zoning is configured on a per fabric basis.
D. Zoning can be enabled at the fabric level in switch mode.
E. You cannot enable zoning at the fabric interconnect level.Correct Answer: CD
Explanation

QUESTION 5
Which two statements about management IP pools in Cisco UCS Manager are true? (Choose two.)
A. The number of IP addresses in the pool is not required when creating management IP pools.
B. The management IP pool can be created under Physical > Storage in Cisco UCS Director
C. The management IP pool must contain any IP addresses that have been assigned as static IP
addresses for a server or service profile.
D. All IP addresses in the in the out of band management IP pool must be in the same subnet as the IP
address of the fabric interconnect.
E. IP addresses in the management IP pool are reserved for external access that terminates in the Cisco
Integrated Management Controller on a server.
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
Which option describes the function of an initiator in Storage Area Networking?
A. stats a connection over the fabric to one or more ports
B. provides a network infrastructure consisting of one or more Fibre Channel switches
C. creates a connection over the fabric to one or more initiator ports
D. an endpoint that receives data in the SAN infrastructure
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 7
A private cloud engineer is adding a production FlexPod into a new Cisco UCS Director deployment.
Which two operational domains contain Cisco components within this data center pod? (Choose two.)
A. storage
B. compute
C. virtual
D. network
E. service delivery
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation

QUESTION 8
An engineer needs to install Windows Server 2012 R2 on a Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Server from an
operating system image in Cisco UCS Director using PXE boot. Which agent must the engineer use?
A. Cisco UCS Director Bare Metal Agent
B. Cisco ISO Agent
C. Windows Boot Agent
D. Cisco UCS Boot AgentCorrect Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-director/bma- install-
config/5-2/b_ucsd_bma_install_config_guide_5_2/b_ucsd_bma_install_config_guide_5_2_appendix
_01000.pdf

QUESTION 9
An engineer needs to install a hypervisor on a Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Server. The operating system
must remain local to the server and must be resilient. Which two hardware components are required to
accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. onboard flash memory
B. SD card
C. external USB
D. internal USB
E. Local disk
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation

QUESTION 10
Which two statements about context workflow mapping in Cisco UCS Director are true? (Choose two.)
A. Workflows cannot be mapped in the form of an action, nor can they be executed in the context of a
component
B. You can execute a workflow that contains a set of tasks from within a context of a component.
C. Workflows cannot be executed at the component level
D. You have to browse for a required workflow in the workflow list to execute it
E. You can map a workflow in the form of an action and execute it in the context of the component
F. Context workflow mapping consists of two stages:
Stage 1 ?Create the workflow to the content mapper list by giving in an action label Stage 2 ?Add a
context mapper task to the workflow that must be mapped as an action
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs- director/orchestration-
guide/5-
0/b_UCS_Director_Orchestration_Guide_5_0/b_UCS_Director_Orchestration_Guide_5_0_
chapter_0101.html#concept_3BA2EDADF4724218802E5CE3184B27A0

QUESTION 11
Which option is the best way to provide templates to end users in Cisco UCS Director?
A. Give access to the template.
B. Assign the template to the standard catalog.
C. Assign the template to the advance catalog.
D. Deploy a copied template.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 12
Which two statements about the Cisco UCS Virtual Media Boot Policy are true? (Choose two.)A. UEFI Boot Mode specifies primary-level boot devices and enables secure boot option.
B. A virtual media device mimics the insertion of a physical CD/DVD disk (read-only) or floppy disk (read-
write) into a server.
C. Secure boot option is enabled by default when creating a boot policy.
D. Boot policies can be created under Physical > Storage in Cisco UCS Director.
E. A boot policy can be configured to boot one or more servers from a virtual media device.
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-central/cli- reference-
manual/1-5/b_CiscoUCSCentral-CLI-Reference-Manual-Release1- 5/b_CiscoUCSCentral-CLI-Reference-
Manual-Release1- 5_chapter_010110.html#concept_9451D9565D534BAEA521E6454896B580

QUESTION 13
A cloud engineer is deploying a new LUN to a customer virtual infrastructure. What is an advantage of
thinprovisioning this storage?
A. The datastore is available immediately.
B. Less space is consumed on the array.
C. The performance (IOPS) is higher.
D. The risk of disk errors is lower.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 14
Which port-channel type is the best when deploying a Cisco Nexus 1000V with Cisco UCS B-Series
Blades?
A. channel-group mode on sub-group cdp
B. channel-group auto mode on mac-pinning
C. channel-group auto mode active
D. channel-group mode on mac-pinning
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-1000v-switch- vmware-
vsphere/white_paper_c11-558242.html

QUESTION 15
A Cisco UCS Director administrator is trying to mapping policies. Where can this task be accomplished?
A. Virtual > Physical Infrastructure Policies
B. Virtual > Virtual/Hypervisor Policies
C. Policies > Physical Infrastructure Policies
D. Policies > Virtual/Hypervisor Policies
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs- director/vsphere-mgmt-
guide/5-0/b_UCS_Director_VMware_vSphere_Management_Guide_50/b_UCS_Director_VMware_
vSphere_Management_Guide_50_chapter_0100.html#topic_736267F57B684D349EBA0C F77B2E17C6

QUESTION 16
A Cisco UCSM administrator is tasked with modifying the boot order in a service profile. Which option lists
the steps required to accomplish this task?
A. In the Navigation pane, click the Servers tab.
On the Servers tab, expand Servers > Service Profiles.
Click the service profile for which you want to change boot order.
Click Boot Order Wizard to change the existing boot policy.
B. In the Navigation pane, click the Servers tab.
On the Servers tab, expand Servers > Service Profiles.
Click the service profile for which you want to change boot order.
Click Boot Security.
Click Modify Boot Policy to change the existing policy.
C. In the Navigation pane, click the Servers tab.
On the Servers tab, expand Servers > Service Profiles.
Click the service profile for which you want to change boot order.
Click Modify Boot Policy to change the existing boot policy.
D. In the Navigation pane, click the Servers tab.
On the Servers tab, expand Servers > Service Profiles.
Click the service profile for which you want to change boot order.
Click Boot Order and the Modify Boot Policy wizard displays.
Change the existing boot policy.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 17
A Cisco UCS Director administrator is changing the boot order in a boot policy. Which option lists the steps
that accomplish this task?
A. On the menu bar, choose Physical > Storage.
In the left pane, expand the pod and then click the Cisco UCS Manager account.
In the right pane, click the Organizations tab.
Click the organization in which you want to modify a policy and then click View Details.
Click the Manage Boot Order tab.
Choose the boot policy that you want to clone and click Manage Boot Order.
B. On the menu bar, choose Physical > Compute.
In the left pane, expand the pod and then click the Cisco UCS Manager account.
In the right pane, click the Organizations tab.
Click the organization in which you want to modify a policy and then click View Details.
Click the Boot Policies tab.
Choose the boot policy that you want to clone and click Manage Boot Devices Order.
C. On the menu bar, choose Physical > Storage.
In the left pane, expand the pod and then click the Cisco UCS Manager account.
In the right pane, click the Organizations tab.
Click the organization in which you want to modify a policy and then click View Details.
Click the Boot Policies tab.
Choose the boot policy that you want to clone and click Manage Boot Devices Order.
D. On the menu bar, choose Physical > Compute.
In the left pane, expand the pod and then click the Cisco UCS Manager account.
In the right pane, click the Organizations tab.
Click the organization in which you want to modify a policy and then click View Details.
Click the Manage Boot Order tab.
Choose the boot policy that you want to clone and click Manage Boot Order.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 18
A Cisco UCS Director administrator is configuring vHBA. Which four fields are needed to configure vHBA?
(Choose four.)
A. vHBA Name
B. Adapter Policy
C. Template Type
D. Organizations
E. Description
F. Fabric ID
G. UCS Organization Name
H. UCS Account Name
Correct Answer: ACEF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-director/ucs- mgmt-guide/4-
0/b_Cisco_UCS_Director_UCS_Management_Guide_40/b_Cisco_UCS_Director_UCS_Ma
nagement_Guide_40_chapter_0101.html#concept_930C11B6473846DDA5F7F25E88EC8 F33

QUESTION 19
Which three options does the Cisco UCS Manager boot policy determine? (Choose three.)
A. initiator port range
B. selection of the boot device
C. location from which the server boots
D. initiator and target ports
E. global boot device priority
F. order in which boot devices are invoked
Correct Answer: BCF
Explanation

QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-460 exam dumps

Which three commands complete the configuration for this Cisco Nexus 1000V port profile that is assigned
to a vmkernel used for L3 VSM control plane? (Choose three.)
A. service-policy type qos output vmk-control
B. vmware port-group
C. system vlan 119
D. capability 13control
E. swithchport mode trunk
F. mtu 9000
G. swithchport 12control
Correct Answer: BCDExplanation

QUESTION 21
An administrator is installing a hypervisor and has provisioned a dedicated LAN connectivity, set the boot
order, and is now rebooting the server to start installation. Which method is the administrator using to
install the hypervisor?
A. host image mapping
B. KVM console
C. PXE installation
D. virtual boot
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 22
An architect must choose a VXLAN architecture that utilizes hardware-based VXLAN adapters. Which type
of architecture must be selected?
A. Layer 3
B. NSX
C. ACI
D. Layer 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 23
With which three types of zoning can a Cisco UCS domain be configured? (Choose three.)
A. cloud-based Fibre Channel zoning
B. Cisco UCS local Fibre Channel zoning
C. hybrid-based Fibre Channel zoning
D. switch-based Fibre Channel zoning
E. no zoning
F. vBlock-based Fibre Channel zoning
Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2-2/
b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2_chapt er_011011.pdf

QUESTION 24
An administrator is troubleshooting a virtual switch that does not show up when it is added to the host
using the port-profile management snap-in. Which action is the next step?
A. Enable SR-IOV for the virtual switch inside Hyper-V
B. Add drivers for the virtual switch
C. Reboot the server
D. Enable VMbus for the parent partition and the virtual machine
Correct Answer: C
ExplanationExplanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/vm_fex/hyperv/gui/config_ guide/2-1/
b_GUI_Hyper-V_VM-FEX_UCSM_Configuration_Guide/b_GUI_Hyper-
V_VMFEX_UCSM_Configuration_Guide_chapter_0101.html#task_FD3156BC3C7F48FBB
F728E8A824E81CA

QUESTION 25
An engineer needs to PXE boot a Cisco UCS server. To do this, which configuration is required in the
service profile?
A. LAN boot
B. NIC boot
C. PXE boot
D. Remote boot
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/141/UCSM_
GUI_Configuration_Guide_141_chapter28.html#task_75111BA2FE684720BC20C2E63DB 9B374

QUESTION 26
An engineer is installing a new blade server chassis with integrated networking. When connecting a new
server chassis to a trunk port on a top-of-rack Cisco Nexus switch, which two precautions must be taken to
ensure proper connectivity when enabling new links? (Choose two.)
A. The SNMP traps on the chassis switch are enabled for Cisco Prime Infrastructure.
B. The trunk settings match on the chassis switch and the TOR switch.
C. The spanning tree settings on the chassis switch and TOR switch are consistent.
D. The SNMP traps on the TOR switch are enabled Cisco Prime Infrastructure.
E. LLDP is enabled on the chassis switch and TOR switch.
F. Cisco Discovery Protocol is enabled on the chassis switch and TOR switch.
Correct Answer: EF
Explanation

QUESTION 27
An engineer needs to deploy a VMFS datastore. Which two LUNs must the engineer use? (Choose two.)
A. Fibre Channel
B. NTFS
C. NFS
D. iSCSI
E. CIFS
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation

QUESTION 28
A data center admin is trying to use a template to deploy a new Cisco UCS service profile, but finds that
the WWPN pool has been exhausted. How can this issue be resolved without changing the service profile
template?A. Edit the existing WWPN pool and add a new block of addresses.
B. Create a new WWPN pool using the same name and an address range that start where the previous
pool ended.
C. Edit the existing WWPN pool and expand the existing block of addresses.
D. Create a new WWPN pool using a different name and an address range that start where the previous
pool ended.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 29
An administrator is troubleshooting basic connectivity between two Fibre Channel points that include node
hops and latency data. Which tool is the best for troubleshooting this scenario?
A. ping
B. fctraceroute
C. traceroute
D. fcping
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: Ping and traceroute are two of the most useful tools for troubleshooting TCP/IP networking
problems. The ping utility generates a series of echopackets to a destination across a TCP/IP
internetwork.
When the echo packets arrive at the destination, they are rerouted and sent back to the source. Using
ping, you can verify connectivity and latency to a particular destination across an IP routed network.
The traceroute utility operates in a similar fashion, but can also determine the specific path that a frame
takes to its destination on a hop-by-hop basis.

QUESTION 30
Which two statements describe Ethernet and vEthernet port profiles? (Choose two.)
A. Ethernet port profiles may only be assigned to Cisco UCS unified ports when configured as type uplink.
B. Ethernet port profiles are assigned to physical interfaces such as vmnics. vEthernet port profiles are
assigned to virtual interfaces such as vNIC, vmk, or VTEP.
C. An MTU change is required on the Ethernet port profiles to support jumbo frames.
D. vEthernet port profiles are assigned to physical interfaces such as vmnics. Ethernet port profiles are
assigned to virtual interfaces such as vNIC, vmk, or VTEP.
E. Ethernet port profiles may only be assigned to Cisco UCS unified ports when configured as type virtual
uplink.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation

QUESTION 31
An FCoE frame has just arrived on a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switch and must be switched toward a
directlyattached FCoE storage array. Which two actions must be done to the frame to accomplish this
task? (Choose two.)
A. The frame is switched out of a physical Fibre Channel interface.
B. The frame is switched out of a physical Ethernet interface.
C. The frame is switched out of a logical Ethernet interface.
D. The frame is switched out of a logical Fibre Channel interface.E. The frame encapsulates a UDP/IP packet.
F. The frame encapsulates a TCP/IP packet.
Correct Answer: BF
Explanation

QUESTION 32
Which four fields are needed when creating a WWPN pool in Cisco UCS Director? (Choose four)
A. the first and last WWPN address in the block
B. the number of WWPN addresses in the block
C. a unique name for the initiator
D. the first WWPN address in the block
E. the WWN for the initiator
F. a unique name for the pool
G. the last WWPN address in the block
H. a description for the pool
Correct Answer: ABFH
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2- 2/
b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2_cha
pter_011001.html#task_8717496137259896828

QUESTION 33
Which is the step to associate an application profile EPG to a VMM domain?
A. The APIC pushes the EPGs as virtual switches to the VM controller.
B. The VMM administrator creates the port groups in the Tenant window then assigns the EPGs to
CPPAs.
C. The APIC pushes the EPGs as port groups in the VM controller.
D. The policy administrator assigns the EPG to physical endpoints in the VMM.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: Provisioning of EPGs in VMM Domain–Associates application profile EPGs to VMM domains
as follows:
The APIC pushes these EPGs as port groups in the VM controller. The compute administrator then places
vNICs into these port groups.
An EPG can span multiple VMM domains, and a VMM domain can contain multiple EPGs.

QUESTION 34
During which process are Cisco UCS UUID, MAC, and WWPN identifiers allocated from the pool?
A. service profile instantiation
B. server boot time
C. service profile assignment to a server
D. service profile template creation
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 35
Which configuration provides the highest performance level to Virtual Extensible LAN?
A. VxLAN in unicast mode with VxLAN TSO offload in Cisco UCS
B. VxLAN in multicast mode with MAC distribution
C. VxLAN in multicast mode with VxLAN TSO offload in Cisco UCS
D. VxLAN in unicast mode with MAC distribution and VxLAN TSO offload in Cisco UCS
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 36
Which option lists the default methods that are needed to access a Cisco UCS C-Series via its Lights-Out
Management? (Choose two.)
A. HTTPS
B. FTP
C. Telnet
D. SSH
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation

QUESTION 37
You have been asked to configure a virtual fiber channel interface. Which information is needed to
complete this task?
A. Fibre Channel ID and VSAN database key
B. VSAN ID and Fibre Channel interface
C. active zoneset and VSAN ID
D. VLAN ID, VSAN ID, and Ethernet interface number
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: Check section “Creating a VFC” of the link; http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/
unified_computing/ucs/ucs-director/network-devices- mgmt-
guide/b_Network_Devices_Management_Guide/b_Network_Devices_Management_Guide
_chapter_01001.html

QUESTION 38
A cloud engineer is implementing a new cloud infrastructure with the following equipment:
One Cisco UCS 5108 AC2 B-Series Chassis
Two Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches
Two Cisco UCS 6248 Fabric Interconnects
One Cisco UCS 2208XP Fabric Extender
Eight Cisco B200 M4 half-width blades
Which option describes the most likely problem with this deployment?A. The half-width blades are not compatible with the chassis.
B. One additional fabric interconnect is needed, because the chassis can handle only six half-width
blades.
C. Two additional fabric interconnects are needed to handle all four blade servers.
D. An additional fabric extender is needed.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 39
With which two types of zoning can a Cisco UCS domain be configured? (Choose two.)
A. hybrid-based Fibre Channel zoning
B. switch-based Fibre Channel zoning
C. Manager-based Fibre Channel zoning
D. cloud-based Fibre Channel zoning
E. no zoning
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation

QUESTION 40
Two companies want to integrate their storage infrastructure. Both companies use a single Cisco MDS
9513 Multilayer Director, but they use Fibre Channel storage arrays from different vendors. Physical
connectivity between the two Cisco MDS 9513s is already in place. No common VSAN IDs exist between
the two companies. Which option is most likely to achieve the goal?
A. Configure NPV.
B. Configure static FCIDs.
C. Change the storage arrays to the same vendor.
D. Enable FC-NAT.
E. Configure IVR.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

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QUESTION 1
ABC Company has just purchased a 6 dBi patch antenna. After performing some tests with the 6 dBi antenna, they
have concluded that more antenna gain is needed to cover their outdoor courtyard.
When choosing an antenna with higher gain, what other antenna characteristic will also always change?
A. Fresnel Zone size
B. Maximum input power
C. Beamwidth
D. Impedance
E. VSWR Ratio
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
ABC Company is planning a point-to-multipoint outdoor bridge deployment with standalone (autonomous) 802.11 bridge
units. 802.1X/EAP will be used for bridge authentication. A Linux- based RADIUS server will be used for authentication.
What device in the bridge implementation acts as the 802.1X Authenticator?
A. The RADIUS server
B. All non-root bridges
C. A designated non-root bridge
D. The root bridge
E. The Ethernet switch
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
What is an advantage of using WPA2-Personal instead of WEP-128 as a security solution for 802.11 networks?
A. WPA2-Personal uses 802.1X/EAP for authentication, and WEP-128 uses preshared keys.
B. WPA2-Personal is based on IEEE 802.11 industry standards, but WEP is not.
C. WPA2-Personal uses CCMP for encryption, and WEP-128 uses TKIP for encryption.
D. WPA2-Personal uses dynamic encryption keys, and WEP-128 uses static keys.
E. WPA2-Personal requires complex 64-character hex keys, whereas WEP-128 requires weak 26- character hex keys.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Your consulting firm has recently been hired to complete a site survey for a company. Your engineers use predictive
modeling software for surveying, but the company insists on a pre- deployment site visit. What tasks should be
performed as part of the pre-deployment visit to prepare for a predictive survey? (Choose 2)
A. With a spectrum analyzer, identify the type, amplitude, and location of RF interference sources, if any are present.
B. Evaluate the building materials at ABC\’s facility and confirm that the floor plan documents are consistent with the
actual building.
C. Test several antenna types connected to the intended APs for use in the eventual deployment.
D. Collect information about the company\’s security requirements and the current configuration of their RADIUS and
user database servers.
E. Install at least one AP on each side of the exterior walls to test for co-channel interference through these walls.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
As defined in the 802.11 specification, legacy Power Save requires an inefficient back-and-forth frame exchange
process. Due to this inefficiency, many WLAN device implementations use a variation of 802.11 Power Save to
accomplish the same function.
What non-standard power save behavior is used by most Wi-Fi devices in actual legacy Power Save implementations?
A. Client devices ignore the TIM field and automatically send PS-Poll frames after every beacon.
B. After each beacon, the AP attempts to empty its frame buffer by sending Wake- on-WLAN frames to wake each
dozing client.
C. Request-to-Send and Clear-to-Send frame exchanges are used to trigger the delivery of buffered data.
D. The Beacon interval is changed from the default 100 time units to 10 or less time units.
E. Clients send null data frames to the AP and switch the power management bit from 1 to 0 to receive queued data.
F. Stations send a CTS-to-self frame to the AP with a very long duration period so they can receive all of their buffered
data at once.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 6
ABC Company has a 2.4 and 5 GHz WLAN deployment. DFS functionality is enabled as required by the regulatory
domain and APs use DFS channels as long as radar is not detected. Band steering is also enabled to encourage dual-
band clients to use frequency bands with more capacity. Your performance analysis shows that many dual-band VoWiFi
client devices will move back and forth between 2.4 and 5 GHz as the users roam throughout the building. All APs have
2.4 and 5 GHz radios enabled with transmit power adjusted to accommodate relatively similar cell sizes. This
andquot;band hoppingandquot; behavior is viewed by network staff to be undesirable.
What is the most likely cause of the unpredictable client band selection behavior?
A. Interference from 5 GHz radar sources has increased frame corruption and retries on channels 36-48.
B. 5 GHz frequencies offer better RF penetration than 2.4 GHz, but 2.4 GHz offers more voice call capacity and lower
latency than 5 GHz. C. The voice client does not support DFS, and therefore experiences some 5 GHz coverage holes as it moves through
the network.
D. The client\’s band selection algorithm prefers 5 GHz, but band steering behavior usually steers 75-85% of client
devices to 2.4 GHz.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
What can cause an excessively high VSWR (Voltage Standing Wave Ratio) in a WLAN RF transmission line?
A. An impedance mismatch in the RF cables and connectors
B. Reflected direct current (DC) voltage on the main RF signal line
C. Attenuation of the RF signal as it travels along the main signal path
D. Crosstalk (inductance) between adjacent RF conductors
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
What statement describes the authorization component of a AAA implementation?
A. Verifying that a user is who he says he is
B. Validating client device credentials against a database
C. Logging the details of user network behavior in order to review it at a later time
D. Granting access to specific network services according to a user profile
E. Implementing a WIPS as a full-time monitoring solution to enforce policies
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
To ease user complexity, your company has implemented a single SSID for all employees. However, the network
administrator needs a way to control the network resources that can be accessed by each employee based on their
department.
What WLAN feature would allow the network administrator to accomplish this task?
A. SNMP
B. VRRP
C. RBAC
D. IPSec
E. WIPS
F. WPA2
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What is the intended use for the WLAN hardware known as a pole or mast mount unit?
A. Mounting a lightning arrestor to a grounding rod
B. Mounting an omnidirectional antenna to a mast
C. Mounting an RF amplifier to a dipole antenna
D. Mounting a PoE injector to a perforated radome
E. Mounting an access point to a site survey tripod
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
How is throughput capacity scaled in a single channel architecture (SCA) WLAN system?
A. By increasing transmit power and placing APs that are on a single channel farther from one another.
B. By adding more SSIDs to existing APs to spread users across different contention domains.
C. By adding non-overlapping channel layers through the addition of more APs.
D. By using downlink data compression and uplink flow control at the AP.
E. By using a single 802.11n radio to transmit simultaneous downlink data streams to different users.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
A Wi-Fi Alliance interoperability certificate indicates that a device is a/b/g/n certified. It further indicates one transmit and
receive spatial stream for both the 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz bands. It further indicates support for both WPA and WPA2
Enterprise and Personal. Finally, it indicates support for EAP-TLS, EAP-TTLS/ MSCHAPv2, PEAPv0/EAP-MSCHAPv2
and PEAPv1/EAP- GTC.
Which one of the following statements is false?
A. This client device supports protection mechanisms such as RTS/CTS and/or CTS- to-Self.
B. This client device supports both TKIP and CCMP cipher suites.
C. 300 Mbps is the maximum supported data rate for this device.
D. This client device supports the ERP, OFDM, and HT physical layer specifications.
E. This client device supports X.509 certificates for EAP authentication.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
What HT technology requires MIMO support on both the transmitter and receiver?
A. Spatial multiplexing
B. Short guard intervals
C. Maximal ratio combining
D. Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
What terms accurately complete the following sentence? The IEEE 802.11-2012 standard specifies mandatory support
of the ___________ cipher suite for Robust Security Network Associations, and optional use of the ___________ cipher
suite, which is designed for use with pre-RSNA hardware.
A. CCMP, TKIP
B. 802.1X/EAP, WEP
C. TLS, SSL
D. CCKM, WEP
E. RC5, RC4
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You were previously onsite at XYZ\’s facility to conduct a pre-deployment RF site survey. The WLAN has been deployed
according to your recommendations and you are onsite again to perform a post- deployment validation survey.
When performing this type of post-deployment RF site survey for VoWiFi, what are two steps that must be performed?
(Choose 2)
A. Coverage analysis to verify appropriate coverage and roaming boundaries
B. Spectrum analysis to locate and identify RF interference sources
C. Frequency-band hopping analysis to detect improper RF channel implementations
D. Protocol analysis to discover channel use on neighboring APs
E. Application analysis with an active phone call on a VoWiFi handset
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 16
What are two channel modes specified by the 802.11n (High Throughput) PHY? (Choose 2)
A. 20 MHz
B. 20/40 MHz C. 40/80 MHz
D. 22 MHz
E. 80 MHz
F. 160 MHz
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 17
What term describes the effect of increasing the intensity of an RF wave with an antenna by focusing the energy in a
specific direction?
A. Distributed Radiation
B. Active Amplification
C. Beam Compression
D. Passive Gain
E. RF Flooding
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
As you prepare for a site survey in a multi-floor corporate office, you have learned about several wireless devices that
support connection-oriented, real-time applications. These applications are sensitive to service interruptions and require
excellent signal quality, low latency, and low loss. For that reason, it is important to identify sources of RF interference
as well as building characteristics that would cause RF blockage or dead spots.
What systems or environmental characteristics are most likely to cause interference or RF blockage and disrupt service
for these applications? (Choose 2)
A. Microwave ovens
B. Narrow hallways
C. Elevator shafts
D. RFID chokepoints
E. Workspace dividers
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 19
During the discovery and connectivity process, client and AP stations exchange information about their supported data
rates. After the association, how do client and AP stations select the supported data rate that will be used to send an
802.11 data frame?
A. During the association, the client and AP agree to use the same transmit rate, but either station can request a change
at any time after the association. B. The client and AP each choose the optimal data rate to use independently of one another, based on their own
measurements related to the RF link.
C. The client and AP may use different transmit rates, but the AP determines the data rate that will be used by each
client station in the BSS.
D. The client and AP may use different transmit rates, but the client determines the data rate that it will use and the data
rate that the AP will use when communicating to the client.
E. The client and AP may use a different transmit rates, but the transmit rate is determined by the peer station, based on
the peer\’s experience of the RF link.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
What facts are true regarding controllers and APs in a Split MAC architecture? (Choose 2)
A. An IP tunnel is established between the AP and controller for AP management and control functions.
B. Using centralized data forwarding, APs never tag Ethernet frames with VLAN identifiers or 802.1p CoS.
C. With 802.1X/EAP security, the AP acts as the supplicant and the controller acts as the authenticator.
D. Management and data frame types must be processed locally by the AP, while control frame types must be sent to
the controller.
E. In a distributed data forwarding model, the AP handles frame encryption and decryption.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 21
What statements about the beamwidth of an RF antenna are true? (Choose 2)
A. The lower the gain of an antenna, the more narrow one or both beamwidths become.
B. The beamwidth patterns on an antenna polar chart indicate the point at which the RF signal stops propagating.
C. Horizontal and vertical beamwidth are calculated at the points in which the main lobe decreases power by 3 dB.
D. Horizontal beamwidth is displayed (in degrees) on the antenna\’s Azimuth Chart.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 22
In addition to coverage analysis results, what should be included in a site survey report to ensure WLAN users
experience acceptable performance?
A. Application Layer protocol availability analysis results
B. Layer 4 protocol availability analysis results
C. Capacity analysis results
D. WAN interface analysis results
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
You are the network administrator for ABC Company. Your manager has recently attended a wireless security seminar.
The seminar speaker taught that a wireless network could be hidden from potential intruders if you disabled the
broadcasting of the SSID in Beacons and configured the access points not to respond to Probe Request frames that
have a null SSID field. Your manager suggests implementing these security practices.
What response should you give to this suggestion? (Choose 2)
A. Any 802.11 protocol analyzer can see the SSID in clear text in frames other than Beacons and Probe Response
frames. This negates any security benefit of trying to hide the SSID in Beacons and Probe Response frames.
B. This security practice prevents manufacturers\’ client utilities from detecting the SSID. As a result, the SSID cannot
be obtained by attackers, except through social engineering, guessing, or use of a WIPS.
C. Although it does not benefit the security posture, hiding the SSID in Beacons and Probe Response frames can be
helpful for preventing some users (such as guests) from attempting to connect to the corporate network.
D. Any tenants in the same building using advanced penetration testing tools will be able to obtain the SSID by
exploiting WPA EAPOL-Key exchanges. This poses an additional risk of exposing the WPA key.
E. To improve security by hiding the SSID, the AP and client stations must both be configured to remove the SSID from
association request and response frames. Most WLAN products support this.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 24
In a Wi-Fi client configuration utility, what feature is most likely to be user configurable?
A. 802.1p to WMM mappings
B. SNMPv3 Users
C. WMM-PS Dozing Interval
D. RADIUS Server IP Address
E. EAP Authentication Type
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 25
Which IEEE 802.11 physical layer (PHY) specifications include support for and compatibility of both OFDM and
HR/DSSS? (Choose 2)
A. HR/DSSS (802.11b)
B. OFDM (802.11a)
C. ERP (802.11g)
D. HT (802.11n) E. CCK (802.11b)
F. VHT (802.11ac)
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 26
What causes of hidden nodes within a BSS would be more likely lead to an increase in collisions and retries? (Choose
2)
A. Data frames too large for the physical environment
B. Client stations broadcasting with too much power
C. Access points broadcasting with too little power
D. Client stations too close in proximity to each other
E. Obstacles between client stations causing attenuation
F. Large 802.11 cells with physically distributed stations
Correct Answer: EF

QUESTION 27
What phrase defines Equivalent Isotropically Radiated Power (EIRP)?
A. The power output from the radio into the RF cable
B. The power output from the radio after cable losses
C. The highest RF signal strength that is transmitted from a given antenna
D. Reflected power due to an impedance mismatch in the signal path
E. Power supplied from the transmission line to the antenna input
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
When using an RF splitter to connect one transceiver to sector antennas loss is incurred.
What is this loss called?
A. Conversion loss
B. Through loss
C. Active loss
D. Intentional loss
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
In an enterprise WLAN, what condition will prevent a dual-band VHT/HT client device from performing a fast and
seamless transition (i.e. latency-sensitive applications are not disrupted) between two access points that are managed
by the same WLAN controller?
A. The current AP is using channel 1 and the new AP is using channel 40.
B. The SSID of the current AP does not match the SSID of the new AP.
C. The current AP supports only HT and the new AP is VHT capable.
D. The access points are hiding the SSID in Beacons and Probe Response frames.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
When performing a site survey for a Multiple Channel Architecture (MCA) system in a multi- tenant building with five
floors, what aspect should you, as the site surveyor, keep in mind?
A. The RF interference caused by passing airplanes supporting on-board Wi-Fi should be a prime consideration.
B. The omni-directional antennas of the access points should be oriented parallel to the floor to maximize the coverage
pattern across as many floors as possible.
C. The channel reuse pattern should be three dimensional with the RF cell extending coverage of each access point to
other floors.
D. The Fresnel Zone is completely blocked between floors so each floor is considered a separate site survey.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
What are the various ways of disabling Chatter?
Correct Answer: To remove Chatter tab from the top horizontal bar, remove it from the \’Selected Tabs\’ from
\’Customize My Tabs\’ from the \’+\’ sign. To remove Chatter link altogether for all profiles, go to Setup -andgt;
Customize -andgt; Chatter -andgt;

QUESTION 2
Automating business processes is possible using
A. workflow
B. approval processes
C. both of above
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
While filling out positions, the hiring manager wants to view job responsibilities and job description at the top of the
page; The recruiter wants to view the name of
the hiring manager and the status at the top.
Which tool would you use to meet this requirement?
A. Record Types
B. Field Level Security
C. Page Layouts
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which objects are available while importing data using the import wizard?
Correct Answer: Lead, Account, Contact, Solution, custom objects

QUESTION 5
In a Master-Detail Relationship, ownership and access to the child record are determined by the parent record
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
New approval steps can be added to an active approval process only if it is deactivated.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Record types can be used to determine
A. picklist values
B. business processes (using different page layouts)
C. Both of above
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
What is the difference between Export and Export All in Apex Data Loader?
Correct Answer: Deleted records are stored in Sales force for 45 days. In \’Export All\’ the deleted records also get
exported. In `Export\’ the deleted records do not get exported.

QUESTION 9
Which are the 2 ways to mass delete records?
Correct Answer: Using Apex Data Loader or from Setup -andgt; Data Management -andgt; Mass Delete Records

QUESTION 10
If a role is added to Case Team, then it will get added to which of the following teams?
A. Account Team
B. Sales Team
C. None of them
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Sharing rules are used to further restrict access defined in the Organization-wide Default settings.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
An object can have
A. A master-detail relationship with itself
B. A lookup relationship with itself
C. Both of above are possible
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Account object has a custom field \’Tax\’ of type number. Two account records are present in Salesforce, account name
Acc1 has value 7 in this field while account
name Acc2 does not have any value in this field. This custom field Tax is now given a default value of 89 by editing it.
Which of these cases will happen:
A. The Tax field of Acc2 will get the value 89 and all accounts created henceforth will have the default value 89 in this
Tax field
B. The Tax field of Acc2 will r
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
When might you need to migrate configuration changes?
Correct Answer: You might need to migrate customizations like apps, objects, code, reports or email templates from a
development sandbox to a training sandbox or production environment

QUESTION 15
Encrypted fields can be edited regardless of whether you have the andquot;View Encrypted Dataandquot; permission.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Using workflow rule field update action on a child object, any field of its parent can be given a value.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
An opportunity is triggering a workflow rule that is set to evaluate. When a record is created, or when a record is edited
and did not previously meet the rule criteria\’. The opportunity previously met the workflow criteria so the workflow ruleshould not trigger now. But the workflow rule is being triggered. What could be the reason?
Correct Answer: This can happen when the account that the opportunity is related to is changed. Doing this will reparent
the opportunity and thus all \’on-create\’ workflow rules will trigger.

QUESTION 18
User B has created a Associate record. At the profile level, the profile \’Custom-Recruiter\’ of User A has only Read, Edit
access for Associate. Role of user B is \’Channel Sales Team\’. User A belongs to the public group \’All Interviewers\’.
OWD of Associate is \’Private\’. A sharing rule has been created to share Associate records owned by the role \’Channel
Sales Team\’ with the public group \’All Interviewers\’ wit h Read/Write access. What access will User A have for the
record control?
Correct Answer: Read and Edit because the sharing rule can make record access lesser restrictive. Thus the statement
\’OWD or sharing rule can make access level lesser restrictive but not more restrictive\’ is valid only if the user has Edit
permission a

QUESTION 19
What is a joined report?
Correct Answer: The joined report format lets you view different types of information in a single report. A joined report
consists of up to five report blocks, which you add to the report to create multiple views of your data. For each block,
you can a

QUESTION 20
Standard Profiles can be customized to fit your organization\’s requirements.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which statement is true?
A. Child records in mater-detail relationships have their own org-wide defaults.
B. Org-wide defaults can be set for both standard and custom objects.
C. Only read/write access can be granted through sharing rules.
D. Sharing rules are used to restrict access to records.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Which are the OOTB reports which will give information about campaign effectiveness?
Correct Answer: Campaign ROI Analysis Report, Campaign Revenue Report, Campaigns with Influenced Opportunities
QUESTION 23Which elements can be stored in folders?
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
What records can be loaded using import wizards? (5 items)
Correct Answer: Accounts Contacts Leads Solutions Custom objects

QUESTION 25
Building your Data Model True or False The limit on the number of custom fields per object depends on the Salesforce
edition.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Where can you monitor bulk data load jobs?
Correct Answer: In the Monitor section in the Setup menu (You must have \’Manage Data Integrations\’ permission to do
this)

QUESTION 27
What can be done with Visualforce?
Correct Answer: Create pages with custom look and feel

QUESTION 28
What are the advantages of using Chatter Desktop over using the in-app Chatter?
Correct Answer: 1. With Chatter Desktop, no installed browser is required (like IE or Google Chrome or Firefox) for
accessing Chatter as it is a desktop application. 2. Chatter Desktop can be configured to start automatically when the
machine starts, s

QUESTION 29
If the entry criteria for a step in an approval process are not met, then the record gets rejected.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Specifying entry criteria is compulsory for:
A. Workflow rule
B. Approval process
C. Both
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
The dashboard widget indicates that FortiGuard Web Filtering is not reachable. However, AntiVirus, IPS, and Application Control have no problems as shown in the exhibit.

You contacted Fortinet’s customer service and discovered that your FortiGuard Web Filtering contract is still valid for several months. What are two reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
A. You have another security device in front of FortiGate blocking ports 8888 and 53.
B. FortiGuard Web Filtering is not enabled in any firewall policy.
C. You did not enable Web Filtering cache under Web Filtering and E-mail Filtering Options.
D. You have a firewall policy blocking ports 8888 and 53.
NSE8 exam Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
A customer is authenticating users using a FortiGate and an external LDAP server. The LDAP user, John Smith, cannot authenticate. The administrator runs the debug command diagnose debug application fnbamd 255 while John Smith attempts the authentication: Based on the output shown in the exhibit, what is causing the problem?
NSE8 dumps
A. The LDAP administrator password in the FortiGate configuration is incorrect.
B. The user, John Smith, does have an account in the LDAP server.
C. The user, John Smith, does not belong to any allowed user group.
D. The user, John Smith, is using an incorrect password.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
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The exhibit shows an explicit Web proxy configuration in a FortiGate device. The FortiGate is installed between a client with the IP address 172.16.10.4 and a Web server using port 80 with the IP address 10.10.3.4. The client Web browser is properly sending HTTP traffic to the FortiGate Web proxy IP address 172.16.10.254. Which two sniffer commands will capture this HTTP traffic? (Choose two.)
A. diagnose sniffer packet any `host 172.16.10.4 and host 172.16.10.254′ 3
B. diagnose sniffer packet any `host 172.16.10.254 and host 10.10.3.4′ 3
C. diagnose sniffer packet any `host 172.16.10.4 and port 8080′ 3
D. diagnose sniffer packet any `host 172.16.10.4 and host 10.10.3.4′ 3
NSE8 dumps Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
Your colleague has enabled virtual clustering to load balance traffic between the cluster units. You notice that all traffic is currently directed to a single FortiGate unit. Your colleague has applied the configuration shown in the exhibit.
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Which step would you perform to load balance traffic within the virtual cluster?
A. Issue the diagnose sys ha reset-uptime command on the unit that is currently processing traffic to enable load balancing.
B. Add an additional virtual cluster high-availability link to enable cluster load balancing.
C. Input Virtual Cluster domain 1 and Virtual Cluster domain 2 device priorities for each cluster unit.
D. Use the set override enable command on both units to allow the secondary unit to load balance traffic.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
A data center for example.com hosts several separate Web applications. Users authenticate with all of them by providing their Active Directory (AD) login credentials. You do not have access to Example, Inc.’s AD server. Your solution must
do the following:
– provide single sign-on (SSO) for all protected Web applications
– prevent login brute forcing
– scan FTPS connections to the Web servers for exploits
– scan Webmail for OWASP Top 10 vulnerabilities such as session cookie hijacking, XSS, and SQL injection attacks
Which solution meets these requirements?
A. Apply FortiGate deep inspection to FTPS. It must forward FTPS, HTTP, and HTTPS to FortiWeb. Configure FortiWeb to query the AD server, and apply SSO for Web requests. FortiWeb must forward FTPS directly to the Web servers without inspection, but proxy HTTP/HTTPS and block Web attacks.
B. Deploy FortiDDos to block brute force attacks. Configure FortiGate to forward only FTPS, HTTP, and HTTPS to FortiWeb. Configure FortiWeb to query the AD server, and apply SSO for Web requests. Also configure it to scan FTPS and Web traffic, then forward allowed traffic to the Web servers.
C. Use FortiGate to authenticate and proxy HTTP/HTTPS; to verify credentials, FortiGate queries the AD server. Also configure FortiGate to scan FTPS before forwarding, and to mitigate SYN floods. Configure FortiWeb to block Web attacks.
D. Install FSSO Agent on servers. Configure FortiGate to inspect FTPS. FortiGate will forward FTPS, HTTP, and HTTPS to FortiWeb. FortiWeb must block Web attacks, then forward all traffic to the Web servers.
NSE8 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A company wants to protect against Denial of Service attacks and has launched a new project. They want to block the attacks that go above a certain threshold and for some others they are just trying to get a baseline of activity for those
types of attacks so they are letting the traffic pass through without action. Given the following:
– The interface to the Internet is on WAN1.
– There is no requirement to specify which addresses are being protected or protected from.
– The protection is to extend to all services.
– The tcp_syn_flood attacks are to be recorded and blocked.
– The udp_flood attacks are to be recorded but not blocked.
– The tcp_syn_flood attack’s threshold is to be changed from the default to 1000.
The exhibit shows the current DoS-policy.
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Which policy will implement the project requirements?

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
Your security department has requested that you implement the OpenSSL.TLS.Heartbeat.Information.Disclosure signature using an IPS sensor to scan traffic destined to the FortiGate. You must log all packets that attempt to exploit this vulnerability. Referring to the exhibit, which two configurations are required to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
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NSE8 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which command syntax would you use to configure the serial number of a FortiGate as its host name?
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A. The packet failed the HMAC validation.
B. The packet did not match any of the local IPsec SAs.
C. The packet was protected with an unsupported encryption algorithm.
D. The IPsec negotiation failed because the SPI was unknown.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Referring to the exhibit, which statement is true?
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A. The packet failed the HMAC validation.
B. The packet did not match any of the local IPsec SAs.
C. The packet was protected with an unsupported encryption algorithm.
D. The IPsec negotiation failed because the SPI was unknown.
NSE8 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You are asked to establish a VPN tunnel with a service provider using a third-party VPN device. The service provider has assigned subnet 30.30.30.0/24 for your outgoing traffic going towards the services hosted by the provider on network
20.20.20.0/24. You have multiple computers which will be accessing the remote services hosted by the service provider.
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Which three configuration components meet these requirements? (Choose three.)
A. Configure an IP Pool of type Overload for range 30.30.30.10-30.30.30.10. Enable NAT on a policy from your LAN forwards the VPN tunnel and select that pool.
B. Configure IPsec phase 2 proxy IDs for a source of 10.10.10.0/24 and destination of 20.20.20.0/24.
C. Configure an IP Pool of Type One-to-One for range 30.30.30.10-30.30.30.10. Enable NAT on a policy from your LAN towards the VPN tunnel and select that pool.
D. Configure a static route towards the VPN tunnel for 20.20.20.0/24.
E. Configure IPsec phase 2 proxy IDs for a source of 30.30.30.0/24 and destination of 20.20.20.0/24.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A university is looking for a solution with the following requirements:
– wired and wireless connectivity
– authentication (LDAP)
– Web filtering, DLP and application control
– data base integration using LDAP to provide access to those students who are up-to-date with their monthly payments
– support for an external captive portal
Which solution meets these requirements?
A. FortiGate for wireless controller and captive portal
FortiAP for wireless connectivity
FortiAuthenticator for user authentication and REST API for DB integration
FortiSwitch for PoE connectivity
FortiAnalyzer for log and report
B. FortiGate for wireless controller
FortiAP for wireless connectivity
FortiAuthenticator for user authentication, captive portal and REST API for DB integration FortiSwitch for PoE connectivity
FortiAnalyzer for log and report
C. FortiGate for wireless control and user authentication
FortiAuthenticator for captive portal and REST API for DB integration
FortiAP for wireless connectivity
FortiSwitch for PoE connectivity
FortiAnalyzer for log and report
D. FortiGate for wireless controller
FortiAP for wireless connectivity and captive portal
FortiSwitch for PoE connectivity
FortiAuthenticator for user authentication and REST API for DB integration
FortiAnalyzer for log and reports
NSE8 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
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A customer wants to secure the network shown in the exhibit with a full redundancy design. Which security design would you use?
A. Place a FortiGate FGCP Cluster between DD and AA, then connect it to SW1, SW2, SW3, and SW4.
B. Place a FortiGate FGCP Cluster between BB and CC, then connect it to SW1, SW2, SW3, and SW4.
C. Place a FortiGate FGCP Cluster between BB and AA, then connect it to SW1, SW2, SW3, and SW4.
D. Place a FortiGate FGCP Cluster between DD and FF, then connect it to SW1, SW2, SW3, and SW4.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A customer has the following requirements:
– local peer with two Internet links
– remote peer with one Internet link
– secure traffic between the two peers
– granular control with Accept policies
Which solution provides security and redundancy for traffic between the two peers?
A. a fully redundant VPN with interface mode configuration
B. a partially redundant VPN with interface mode configuration
C. a partially redundant VPN with tunnel mode configuration
D. a fully redundant VPN with tunnel mode configuration
NSE8 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
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How would you apply security to the network shown in the exhibit?
A. Replace RW1 with a ruggedized FortiGate and RW2 with a normal FortiGate. Enable industrial category on the application control. Place a FortiGate to secure Web servers. Configure IPsec to secure sensors data. Place a ruggedized FortiAP to provide Wi-Fi to the sensors.
B. Replace RW1 with a normal FortiGate and RW2 with a ruggedized FortiGate. Enable industrial category on the application control. Place a FortiGate to secure Web servers. Configure IPsec to secure sensors data. Place a FortiAP to provide Wi-Fi to the sensors.
C. Replace RW1 with a normal FortiGate and RW2 with a ruggedized FortiGate. Enable industrial category on the Web filter. Place a FortiWeb to secure Web servers. Configure IPsec to secure sensors data. Place a ruggedized FortiAP to provide Wi-Fi to the sensors.
D. Replace RW1 with a normal FortiGate and RW2 with a ruggedized FortiGate. Enable industrial category on the application control. Place a FortiWeb to secure Web servers. Configure IPsec to secure sensors data. Place a ruggedized FortiAP to provide Wi-Fi to the sensors.
Correct Answer: D

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Exam Codes: CLO-001
Number of Questions :50 questions
Type of Questions : Multiple choice
Length of Test :60 Minutes
Passing Score: 720
Recommended Experience:At least six months working in an environment that markets or relies on IT-related services
Languages:English, Japanese and Portuguese
Exam Name: CompTIA Cloud Essentials Exam
pass4itsure Q&As: 230

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Exam B
QUESTION 1
Which of the following is the function of orchestration services?
A. Assemble functional requirements for application development
B. Configure application clusters with Web services
C. Enable and disable load balancers
D. Manage the starting and stopping of application server clusters
CLO-001 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is true when mitigating risks in a cloud environment while avoiding impact to performance?
A. When securing cloud resources, only the most sensitive data should be secured.
B. When securing cloud resources, it is always a best practice to encrypt all data stored in the cloud.
C. When securing cloud resources, data security is not an issue.
D. When securing cloud resources, it is always a best practice to use the strongest security on the most sensitive data.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 3
As part of a critical SaaS application, one of the contractual statements by the cloud provider is a requirement to perform scheduled maintenance. This has a direct impact on which of the following?
A. Service strategy
B. Service transition
C. Service operation
D. Service design
CLO-001 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is a benefit of cloud computing?
A. Cloud computing delivers IT capabilities that scale with demand.
B. Cloud computing delivers a wide range of services that are easily accessible to users
C. Cloud computing delivers IT capacity on demand.
D. Cloud computing negates the need for a procurement department.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 5
How can an organization successfully implement a PaaS strategy?
A. Open up internal databases with Web service access.
B. Take inventory of the application portfolio and select external suppliers
C. Standardize on a limited set of virtual machines.
D. Continuously execute performance analytics to monitor providers
CLO-001 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 6
A company’s IT department currently spends several hours a day maintaining the hardware of the database server. The company migrates the server to the cloud. Which of the following job responsibilities of the IT department has been MOST impacted by this change?
A. Service Strategy
B. Service Operation
C. Service Design
D. Service Transition
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 7
Which of the following roles can the IT department play in the selection process of cloud computing providers?
A. Help understand and explain the application lifecycle
B. Help understand performance parameters
C. Help understand provider quality
D. All of the above are correct
CLO-001 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 8
Why does cloud computing shift capital cost to variable cost?
A. Cloud computing is more cost-efficient
B. IT assets are not owned by the customer
C. Servers are better utilized
D. Staff is no longer hired by the customer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 9
A private cloud is defined as:
A. a deployment model that uses an external cloud provider to provide host application servicesthat are Internet accessible.
B. a deployment model that partners with other industry related companies to provide infrastructure services.
C. a deployment model that uses virtualization technologies to provide infrastructure on demand within its network.
D. a deployment model that uses an external cloud provider to provide host infrastructure services that are Internet accessible.
CLO-001 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is important to standardize?
A. Information standards and applications
B. User names and hardware providers
C. Virtual machine images and applications
D. Virtual machine images and identity information standards
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 11
Which of the following are essential steps to take when creating a virtual server?
A. Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select security credentials.
B. Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select the size of the virtual machine.
C. Select a machine image to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.
D. Select an application set to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.
CLO-001 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 12
A specific cloud deployment has been established specifically for financial services companies to consume. Which of the following BEST describes this type of
cloud environment?
A. Private cloud
B. Community cloud
C. Hybrid cloud
D. Public cloud
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 13
An organization is in the process of selecting a SaaS provider to replace its current internal customer relationship management system. The business expects better functionality than what is provided with the internal system. Which of the following is the BEST reason for moving to a SaaS cloud service?
A. Understand who the most experienced IaaS cloud providers are so that a recommendation can be made to the business based on what other industry vendors are doing.
B. Understand the current SLA’s of the cloud providers to ensure that they can exceed the current expected business SLA’s.
C. Understand current functional and non-functional requirements of the system in order to ensure the new system can meet and provide value add to current business needs.
D. Understand the cost model of the hosted infrastructure and whether the current system can be hosted on cloud provided infrastructure.
CLO-001 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 14
In which of the following ways do IT outsourcing and cloud computing differ?
A. Cloud computing services are typically much more scalable.
B. Cloud computing is much cheaper.
C. Hardware and software assets are typically customizable.
D. IT outsourcing promotes innovation.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 15
Since the implementation of a cloud infrastructure, a senior level network administrator’s job description has changed from being responsible for maintaining the hardware of the network infrastructure to more of a management position, ensuring the cloud vendor is providing the services specified in the contract with the company. Which of the following has been impacted the MOST by the change in job responsibility?
A. Service Transition
B. Service Design
C. Service Operation
D. Service Strategy
CLO-001 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 16
Which of the following is an essential step in the start-up process of a virtual server?
A. Identify the location of the physical machine
B. Select identity providers
C. Select security credentials
D. Select the application set that will run on it
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 17
An entrepreneur has decided to open an e-commerce site to complement their retail store. After researching their options, they decide that a PaaS solution will be sufficient. To reduce upfront cost, the entrepreneur intends to build the site themselves. Which of the following skill-sets will be needed?
A. Firewall Administration
B. Web-Server Administration
C. Security standard development
D. Application development
CLO-001 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 18
An organization is replacing its core insurance platform. The solution is made up of internally hosted insurance systems and applications hosted in the cloud. Which of the following activities is part of service transition?
A. Ensure that as part of the change management process the events are sequenced to include the cloud provider and that they have resources available.
B. Ensure that monitoring controls are implemented by the cloud provider to ensures that the system is highly available and that performance can be measured.
C. Ensure that the SLA’s for availability have been well documented and agreed to as part of the contract arrangement between the two companies.
D. Ensure that the capacity and storage is available to meet the current and future demands of the solution of the cloud provider’s infrastructure.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 19
The business benefits of mobile computing are enhanced MOST by which of the following cloud service characteristics?
A. Hardware independence
B. Security
C. Distribution over the Internet
D. Time to market
CLO-001 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 20
Which of the following is the cloud characteristics that speeds up development, deployment, and overall time to market?
A. Rapid elasticity
B. Cloud bursting
C. Universal access
D. Network pooling
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 21
Which of the following must be implemented by a cloud provider to ensure that different entities can authenticate and share basic user accounting information?
A. Scalability
B. Federation
C. Virtualization
D. Self service
CLO-001 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 22
Privacy is the right of________ to selectively disclose information about _________ and restrict the further use of that information by any party.
A. companies, others
B. companies, themselves
C. individuals, others
D. individuals, themselves
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 23
Which of the following is a differentiating characteristic of private cloud solutions compared to public cloud solutions?
A. Private cloud solutions are dedicated for use by a single organization.
B. Private cloud solutions are never accessible via the public Internet.
C. Private cloud solutions do not provide incremental scalability.
D. Private cloud solutions save considerably more money than a public cloud solution.
CLO-001 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 24
Which of the following describes the commonality between cloud computing and outsourcing?
A. Shift from CAPEX to OPEX
B. Reduced compliance cost
C. Simplified security management
D. Reduced system architecture complexity
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 25
How can an organization successfully implement an IaaS strategy?
A. Standardize on a limited set of virtual machines
B. Continuously execute performance analytics
C. Open up internal databases with Web service access
D. Take inventory of the application portfolio and select external suppliers
CLO-001 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 26
An organization has just gone to a start-up cloud provider for its entire infrastructure. Which of the following is one of the new organizational roles required at the cloud provider?
A. Supply manager
B. Commercial manager
C. Infrastructure project manager
D. Credit risk manager
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 27
Which of the following is a service level management tool aimed at quantifying a cloud offerings’ performance?
A. Mean Time to Recovery
B. Risk Assessment
C. Business Impact Analysis
D. Request for Proposal
CLO-001 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 28
A company has hired a third party vendor to provide email and spam/anti-malware filtering services. The type of cloud service provided by the vendor is BEST
described as which of the following?
A. SaaS
B. IaaS
C. CaaS
D. PaaS
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Recommended Experience

None

Recommended Equipment

None

Related Certifications

CompTIA Cloud Essentials CLO-001

Related Job Functions

Business Analysts
Business Process Owners
IT staff members
Support staff
Entry-level datacenter staff
Sales staff in cloud product
Marketing staff in cloud product

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Published: September 17, 2012
Languages: English, Chinese (Simplified), French, German, Japanese, Portuguese (Brazil)
Audiences: IT professionals
Technology: Windows Server 2012 R2
Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSA, MCSE
Exam Code: 70-412
Exam Name: Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
Q&As: 424

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QUESTION 1
You have a virtual machine named VM1 that runs on a host named Host1.
You configure VM1 to replicate to another host named Host2. Host2 is located in the same physical location as Host1.
You need to add an additional replica of VM1. The replica will be located in a different physical site.
What should you do?
A. From VM1 on Host2, click Extend Replication.
B. On Host1, configure the Hyper-V settings.
C. From VM1 on Host1, click Extend Replication.
D. On Host2, configure the Hyper-V settings.
70-412 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Extend Replication through UI:
Before you Extend Replication to third site, you need to establish the replication between a primary server and replica server. Once that is done, go to replica site and from Hyper-V UI manager select the VM for which you want to extend the replication. Right click on VM and select “Replication->Extend Replication …”. This will open Extend Replication Wizard which is similar to Enable Replication Wizard. NOTE: You configure a server to receive replication with Hyper-V Manager, in this situation the replica site is assumed to be the Replica Server. Therefore you extend replication from VM1 on Host2.
Note 2: With Hyper-V Extend Replication feature in Windows Server 2012 R2, customers can have multiple copies of data to protect them from different outage scenarios. For example, as a customer I might choose to keep my second DR site in the same campus or a few miles away while I want to keep my third copy of data across the continents to give added protection for my workloads. Hyper-V Replica Extend replication exactly addresses this problem by providing one more
copy of workload at an extended site apart from replica site.

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains three domains. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The forest has a two-way realm trust to a Kerberos realm named adatum.com.
You discover that users in adatum.com can only access resources in the root domain of contoso.com. You need to ensure that the adatum.com users can access the resources in all of the domains in the forest. What should you do in the forest?
A. Delete the realm trust and create a forest trust.
B. Delete the realm trust and create three external trusts.
C. Modify the incoming realm trust.
D. Modify the outgoing realm trust.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* A one-way, outgoing realm trust allows resources in your Windows Server domain (the domain that you are logged on to at the time that you run the New Trust Wizard) to be accessed by users in the Kerberos realm.
* You can establish a realm trust between any non-Windows Kerberos version 5 (V5) realm and an Active Directory domain. This trust relationship allows cross-platform interoperability with security services that are based on other versions of the Kerberos V5 protocol, for example, UNIX and MIT implementations. Realm trusts can switch from nontransitive to transitive and back. Realm trusts can also be either one-way or two-way. Reference: Create a One-Way, Outgoing, Realm Trust

QUESTION 3
Your network contains two servers named HV1 and HV2. Both servers run Windows Server 2012 R2 and have the Hyper-V server role installed. HV1 hosts 25 virtual machines. The virtual machine configuration files and the virtual hard disks are stored in D:\VM.
You shut down all of the virtual machines on HV1.
You copy D:\VM to D:\VM on HV2.
You need to start all of the virtual machines on HV2. You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. What should you do?
A. Run the Import-VMInitialReplication cmdlet.
B. From HV1, export all virtual machines to D:\VM. Copy D:\VM to D:\VM on HV2 and overwrite the existing files. On HV2, run the Import Virtual Machine wizard.
C. From HV1, export all virtual machines to D:\VM. Copy D:\VM to D:\VM on HV2 and overwrite the existing files. On HV2, run the New Virtual Machine wizard.
D. Run the Import-VM cmdlet.
70-412 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
Your network contains a perimeter network and an internal network. The internal network contains an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) 2.1 infrastructure. The infrastructure uses Active Directory as the attribute store. You plan to deploy a federation server proxy to a server named Server2 in the perimeter network. You need to identify which value must be included in the certificate that is deployed to Server2. What should you identify?
A. The FQDN of the AD FS server
B. The name of the Federation Service
C. The name of the Active Directory domain
D. The public IP address of Server2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
To add a host (A) record to corporate DNS for a federation server On a DNS server for the corporate network, open the DNS snap-in.
1. In the console tree, right-click the applicable forward lookup zone, and then click New Host (A).
2. In Name, type only the computer name of the federation server or federation server cluster (for example, type fs for the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) fs.adatum.com).
3. In IP address, type the IP address for the federation server or federation server cluster (for example, 192.168.1.4).
4. Click Add Host. Reference: Add a host (A) record to corporate DNS for a federation server

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server1 that has the Active Directory Federation Services server role installed. All servers run Windows Server 2012.
You complete the Active Directory Federation Services Configuration Wizard on Server1. You need to ensure that client devices on the internal network can use Workplace Join. Which two actions should you perform on Server1? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Run Enable-AdfsDeviceRegistration -PrepareActiveDirectory.
B. Edit the multi-factor authentication global authentication policy settings.
C. Run Enable-AdfsDeviceRegistration.
D. Run Set-AdfsProxyProperties HttpPort 80.
E. Edit the primary authentication global authentication policy settings.
70-412 pdf Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
C. To enable Device Registration Service
On your federation server, open a Windows PowerShell command window and type:
Enable-AdfsDeviceRegistration
Repeat this step on each federation farm node in your AD FS farm.
E. Enable seamless second factor authentication
Seamless second factor authentication is an enhancement in AD FS that provides an added level of access protection to corporate resources and applications from external devices that are trying to access them. When a personal device is
Workplace Joined, it becomes a `known’ device and administrators can use this information to drive conditional access and gate access to resources. To enable seamless second factor authentication, persistent single sign-on (SSO) and conditional access for Workplace Joined devices. In the AD FS Management console, navigate to Authentication Policies. Select Edit Global Primary Authentication. Select the check box next to Enable Device Authentication, and then click OK.
Reference: Configure a federation server with Device Registration Service.

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. Users frequently access the website of an external partner company. The URL of the website is http://partners.adatum.com. The partner company informs you that it will perform maintenance on its Web server and that the IP addresses of the Web server will change. After the change is complete, the users on your internal network report that they fail to access the website. However, some users who work from home report that they can access the website. You need to ensure that your DNS servers can resolve partners.adatum.com to the correct IP address immediately. What should you do?
A. Run dnscmd and specify the CacheLockingPercent parameter.
B. Run Set-DnsServerGlobalQueryBlockList.
C. Run ipconfig and specify the Renew parameter.
D. Run Set-DnsServerCache.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The Set-DnsServerCache cmdlet modifies cache settings for a Domain Name System (DNS) server.
Run Set-DnsServerCache with the -LockingPercent switch.
/ -LockingPercent
Specifies a percentage of the original Time to Live (TTL) value that caching can consume. Cache locking is configured as a percent value. For example, if the cache locking value is set to 50, the DNS server does not overwrite a cached entry for half of the duration of the TTL. By default, the cache locking percent value is 100. This value means that the DNS server will not overwrite cached entries for the entire duration of the TTL. Note. A better way would be clear the DNS cache on the DNS server with either Dnscmd /ClearCache (from command prompt), or Clear-DnsServerCache (from Windows PowerShell).
Reference: Set-DnsServerCache
Incorrect:
Not A. You need to use the /config parameter as well:
You can change this value if you like by using the dnscmd command:
dnscmd /Config /CacheLockingPercent QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 and a member server named Server1. Server1 has the IP Address Management (IPAM) Server feature installed.
On Dc1, you configure Windows Firewall to allow all of the necessary inbound ports for IPAM.
On Server1, you open Server Manager as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
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You need to ensure that you can use IPAM on Server1 to manage DNS on DC1. What should you do?
A. Modify the outbound firewall rules on Server1.
B. Modify the inbound firewall rules on Server1.
C. Add Server1 to the Remote Management Users group.
D. Add Server1 to the Event Log Readers group.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
To access configuration data and server event logs, the IPAM server must be a member of the domain IPAM Users Group (IPAMUG). The IPAM server must also be a member of the Event Log Readers security group. Note: The computer account of the IPAM server must be a member of the Event Log Readers security group.
Reference: Manually Configure DC and NPS Access Settings.

QUESTION 8
You have 30 servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. All of the servers are backed up daily by using Windows Azure Online Backup. You need to perform an immediate backup of all the servers to Windows Azure Online Backup. Which Windows PowerShell cmdlets should you run on each server?
A. Get-OBPolicy | StartOBBackup
B. Start-OBRegistration | StartOBBackup
C. Get-WBPolicy | Start-WBBackup
D. Get-WBBackupTarget | Start-WBBackup
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
This example starts a backup job using a policy.
Windows PowerShell
PS C:\> Get-OBPolicy | Start-OBBackup
Incorrect:
Not B. Registers the current computer to Windows Azure Backup.
Not C. Not using Azure
Not D. Not using Azure
Reference: Start-OBBackup

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DNS Server server role installed. Server1 has a zone named contoso.com. The zone is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-412 dumps
You need to assign a user named User1 permission to add and delete records from the contoso.com zone only. What should you do first?
A. Enable the Advanced view from DNS Manager.
B. Add User1 to the DnsUpdateProxy group.
C. Run the New Delegation Wizard.
D. Configure the zone to be Active Directory-integrated.
70-412 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Secure dynamic updates are only supported or configurable for resource records in zones that are stored in Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS).
Note: To modify security for a resource record
Open DNS Manager.
In the console tree, click the applicable zone.
In the details pane, click the record that you want to view.
On the Action menu, click Properties.
On the Security tab, modify the list of member users or groups that are allowed to securely update the applicable record and reset their permissions as needed.
Reference: Modify Security for a Resource Record

Configure and Manage High Availability

Configure Network Load Balancing (NLB)
Configure failover clustering
Manage failover clustering roles
Manage Virtual Machine (VM) movement

Configure File and Storage Solutions

Configure advanced file services
Implement Dynamic Access Control (DAC)
Configure and optimize storage

Implement Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery

Configure and manage backups
Recover servers
Configure site-level fault tolerance

Configure Network Services

Implement an advanced Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) solution
Implement an advanced DNS solution
Deploy and manage IPAM

Configure the Active Directory Infrastructure

Configure a forest or a domain
Configure trusts
Configure sites
Manage Active Directory and SYSVOL replication

Configure Access and Information Protection Solutions

Implement Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
Install and configure Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS)
Manage certificates
Install and configure Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS)

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Implementing Cisco Wireless Networking Fundamentals:

Exam Number	200-355
Associated Certifications	CCNA Wireless
Duration	90 minutes (60-70 questions)
Available Languages	English, Japanese
Exam Name	Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals
Q&As	434
Register	Pearson VUE

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Pass4isture Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-355 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-33)

QUESTION 5
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QUESTION 6
An engineer is using a predictive survey tool to estimate placement of APs in a carpeted office space. Most interior walls should be assigned which attenuation value?
A. 2 dB
B. 3 dB
C. 4 dB
D. 5 dB
200-355 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which wireless topology supports roaming?
A. IBSS
B. BSS
C. ESS
D. bridging
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two factors must be considered when evaluating an RF interferer for severity? (Choose two.)
A. distance from the AP
B. dBm
C. the type of security crack being used
D. duty cycle
E. number of interfering IP stations in the cell
F. duplicate SSID
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
A controller is connected to a Cisco Catalyst switch. The switch port configuration looks like this: interface GigabitEthernet 1/0/10
switchport
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,20,30,50
switchport trunk native vlan 20
switchport mode trunk
Which controller CLI command assigns its management interface to the native VLAN interface of the Cisco Catalyst
switch?
A. config interface vlan management 0
B. config interface vlan management 1
C. config interface vlan management 20
D. config interface vlan management 30
E. config interface vlan management 50
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
An engineer has been asked to disable all OFDM rates in the wireless environment. What three rates should be disabled to fulfill this requirement? (Choose three.)
A. 2
B. 5.5
C. 6
D. 9
E. 11
F. 12
G. 18
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 11
Which type of authentication is used initially by a controller-based AP so that a guest client can get an IP address?
A. 802.1x
B. EAP
C. LEAP
D. open authentication
E. TLS
F. SSL
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
200-355 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. During deployment of a WLC on a customer site, the GUI log displayed this error message. What could be causing this error?
A. An access point has been assigned to an AP group that has reached maximum capacity.
B. An access point has been assigned to an AP group that has been deleted.
C. An access point has been removed from an AP group and assigned to a FlexConnect AP group.
D. An access point has been removed from an AP group and assigned to the default AP group.
200-355 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which user group has the ability to configure all features of the Cisco WCS except the user accounts and passwords?
A. Admin
B. SuperUser
C. Root
D. Supervisor
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
An engineer is connecting a Cisco 5508 Wireless Controller that must connect to an out-of- band management network for management only. Which two options should be used for the port on the WLC and the cable type? (Choose two.)
A. service port
B. redundancy port
C. console port
D. distribution system port
E. straight through cable
F. crossover cable
G. console cable
200-355 exam Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 15
How does an LWAP receive a configuration file?
A. It is configured manually.
B. It receives a configuration from the controller.
C. It automatically ships with a configuration.
D. It receives a configuration from a TFTP server.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
What two capabilities would be present on a wireless client device that supports CCXv3? (Choose two.)
A. WPA2
B. 802.1x
C. PEAP-MSCHAP
D. NAC
E. MFP
F. EAP-TLS
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 17
A customer mounted three new APs in a small business. After configuring the IP address, users still could not access the web through the new access points. What two configurations are needed to fix this? (Choose two.)
A. Security parameters
B. Gateway address
C. Service Set ID
D. Antenna option
E. EAP Authentication
F. Unique AP Name
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 18
Which two statements about the results of the Cisco WCS version 7.0 client troubleshooting tool are true? (Choose two.)
A. Results of Layers 1 – 3 are provided.
B. Results of only Layers 2 and 3 are provided.
C. Results of Layers 4 – 7 are provided.
D. The tabulated results vary depending on the client type.
E. Results are provided in a fixed four-part tabulation.
F. Results are provided in a fixed six-part tabulation.
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 19
Which open standard defines the combination of Extensible Authentication Protocol with Advanced Encryption Standard for providing strong wireless LAN client security?
A. IEEE 802.1X
B. IEEE 802.11i
C. WEP
D. WPA
E. WPA2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
What two access methods are enabled by default on a Cisco WLC? (Choose two.)
A. HTTP
B. HTTPS
C. Telnet
D. SSH
E. VPN
F. SFTP
200-355 exam Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 21
200-355 dumps
Correct Answer:

QUESTION 22
To implement a more secure means of communication for voice and data, what technology successfully resists interference by utilizing a wider bandwidth than needed for the transmitting signal?
A. Spread Spectrum
B. Microwave
C. Extended U-NII2
D. ISM Bands
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which Cisco WCS tool allows you to view current reports, open specific types of reports, create and save new reports, and manage scheduled runs?
A. Reports menu
B. Reports launch page
C. Scheduled Run results
D. saved reports
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Which two algorithms are available in RRM? (Choose two.)
A. coverage-hole detection
B. dynamic channel assignment
C. RSSI normalizer
D. transmitting channel expander
E. rogue detection
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 25
Which IEEE 802.11n client feature can combine the signal from multiple antennas and radio chains to improve SNR?
A. channel aggregation
B. spatial multiplexing
C. MAC layer efficiency
D. TxBF
E. MRC
F. MCS
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 26
Which two statements about the results of the Cisco WCS version 7.0 client troubleshooting tool are true? (Choose two.)
A. Results of Layers 1 – 3 are provided.
B. Results of only Layers 2 and 3 are provided.
C. Results of Layers 4 – 7 are provided.
D. The tabulated results vary depending on the client type.
E. Results are provided in a fixed four-part tabulation.
F. Results are provided in a fixed six-part tabulation.
200-355 vce Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 27
When using a Split MAC architecture, how many CAPWAP data tunnels will be built to an AP with four SSIDs across two VLANs?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
A network engineer notices that two mesh APs are having problems communicating. After reviewing the current radio configurations, it is noted that one AP is transmitting at 3 mW while the other is transmitting at 60 mW. How many decibels would the 3-mW AP need its power increased to match the 60-mW AP?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 13
D. 20
E. 57
200-355 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 29
An 802.11g network is experiencing intermittent signal degradation and Spectrum Analyzer is being used to try and locate the problem. What two interferers would likely be identified? (Choose two.)
A. multiple cell phones
B. microwave oven
C. FM Radio
D. cordless phone
E. document scanner
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 30
You are sitting in an airport preparing to use a free WLAN. When you look at the connections in your Windows 7 wireless client, you see a network name and three boxes with a yellow shield. What does this mean?
A. You cannot connect to this WLAN.
B. An open ad hoc network is nearby.
C. The WLAN in the airport is open.
D. A secure ad hoc network is nearby.
E. A secure WLAN is in the airport.
F. You must provide a username and password to access the WLAN in the airport.
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
The network administrator wants an access point to be able to find rogue APs and to support location-based services. Which AP mode meets this requirement while having the radios up and preventing client connections?
A. monitor
B. sniffer
C. rogue-detection
D. H-REAP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
The network administrator receives complaints of slow wireless network performance and performs a sniffer trace of the
wireless network in preparation for migration to 802.11n. The sample capture shows frames that contains AP beacons with NonERP_Present bit set to 1 and frames with RTS/CTS. Which two conclusions can be interpreted from these frames? (Choose two.)
A. The network is performing slowly because 802.11n clients are already mixed with 802.11g clients.
B. The network is performing slowly because 802.11b clients still exist in the network.
C. The network is performing slowly because a wireless client is incorrectly configured, which results in RF interference.
D. Possible 802.11b wireless clients are located only in the AP cell radius where the sniffer capture was performed.
E. Possible 802.11b wireless clients could be located anywhere in the wireless network.
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 33
Which Cisco AnyConnect module allows troubleshooting for core AnyConnect problems?
A. telemetry
B. web security
C. VPN
D. NAM
E. DART
F. posture
G. CSSC
Correct Answer: E

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The following course is the recommended training for this exam:

Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals (WIFUND) v1.0
Defining Cisco Wireless LAN Essentials (WLE) v1.1
Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals (WIFUND) v1.0 – Instructor led training

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QUESTION 1
How many VoIP callers does WebEx audio support per meeting?
A. Up to 250 callers
B. Up to 500 callers
C. Up to 700 callers
D. Up to 1000 callers
648-232 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about screenshot captures in Enterprise IM?
A. Screenshot captures are not supported in group, third-party, or web IM sessions.
B. Screen captures and file transfers can be done at any time throughout the web IM session.
C. Screen captures need to be done by a third party.
D. Only administration has the rights to capture screenshots.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
One of the challenges of online training is measuring class effectiveness. Which two tools does Cisco WebEx Training
Center use to measure this? (Choose two.)
A. visual attention indicator
B. polling
C. self-check quizzes
D. application sharing
648-232 dumps Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
Where does the WebEx node reside?
A. only in the DMZ
B. on the Enterprise Branch
C. anywhere on the network
D. near the Meeting Director
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which statement is true in regards to Cisco Unified MeetingPlace video?
A. MeetingPlace standards-based video and WebEx HQ/HD video do not interoperate.
B. Customers must run both MeetingPlace standards-based video and WebEx HQ/HD video for it to run properly.
C. Only the active speaker will show in the thumbnail.
D. MeetingPlace has not yet moved to high definition.
648-232 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What is the difference between HQ and HD video?
A. HQ video is 360p, while HD video is 720p or higher.
B. The terms are interchangeable.
C. HQ video is 720p, while HD video is 1080p or higher.
D. HQ video is 360p, while HD video is 1080p or higher.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What are the three ways that the WebEx Support Center improves key performance metrics for a business? (Choose three.)
A. increases first-call resolution percentage
B. lengthens average call handling time
C. drives in-person sales
D. shortens average wait time
E. improves customer satisfaction rating
F. increases time to resolution
648-232 vce Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 8
Which two video choices do customers have for Cisco Unified MeetingPlace hybrid deployment? (Choose two.)
A. WebEx high quality/high definition
B. HD.264
C. H.23, SIP, or SCCP devices
D. MP video
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
Which two deployment models are supported with Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Release 8.5? (Choose two.)
A. audio-only
B. reservationless meetings
C. WebEx teleconferencing
D. WebEx scheduling
E. WebEx video-only
648-232 exam Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10
Which two of these factors should be considered when determining the size of a conference system? (Choose two.)
A. future growth
B. service levels
C. location of participants
D. CapEx
E. node capacity
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
Why should policy groups be avoided when creating policies?
A. Policy groups are not supported.
B. There are possible performance impacts if not used correctly.
C. Policy groups keep the majority of users assigned to the top level group.
D. There is a limit to the number of users in a policy group.
648-232 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
In which category does the Domain setting appear in the WebEx Administration Tool?
A. Customization
B. Enterprise Edition
C. Configuration
D. System Settings
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which statement is true about Cisco Unified MeetingPlace personal conferences?
A. There are no recordings.
B. Only a web participant list is shown.
C. Participants are able to talk without the host present.
D. The audio session and web session will display on the participants list on the meeting room interface.
648-232 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Your primary site becomes unavailable. Which one of these features enables you to automatically and transparently move all collaboration activity to the backup site, ensuring a seamless user experience?
A. medianet
B. GSB
C. WebEx One-Click
D. GDM
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
WebEx Meeting Center allows users to escalate to a WebEx meeting. What is required to initiate an escalation?
A. WebEx host license
B. WebEx Meeting email invitation
C. acquaintance with all participants
D. WebEx Connect ID and password
648-232 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which statement is true about active speaker?
A. Active speaker switching is automatic with third-party audio only.
B. Active speaker does not work for a site without integrated audio.
C. Active speaker switching is automatic with Cisco WebEx audio, third-party audio, and Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Release 8.5.
D. Active speaker only works with those who have video enabled on their WebEx.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which three host capabilities are available on WebEx for iPad? (Choose three.)
A. schedule, start, or cancel a meeting
B. invite attendees
C. pass presenter control
D. stream media from a PC
E. chat privately with attendees
F. run WebEx in the background
648-232 exam Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 18
Which one of these groups uses a specific transport protocol, such as RSVP, for signaling the metadata attributes and storing the information in the database?
A. consumers
B. producers
C. solution components
D. meeting clients
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
What are trusted domains external to WebEx Connect?
A. whitelist domains
B. CSV files
C. blacklist domains
D. XMPP domains
648-232 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
What does the global attentiveness meter monitor?
A. if the attendee has the correct audio equipment
B. whether or not attendees are using external applications during the event
C. pre- and post-event reporting
D. event success
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which customers would benefit from Cisco WebEx audio?
A. customers who do not need to join a meeting via their mobile device
B. customers who have more than 500 VoIP users
C. customers using meeting spaces
D. customers who need an integrated audio feature such as active speaker or hybrid VoIP
648-232 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Why is the bandwidth requirement for sending video higher than the requirement for receiving video?
A. More information is sent within the multilayer frames.
B. Receiving the video data traffic is specific to local capabilities.
C. Raw data needs to be compressed.
D. The decoder gets the bitstream from the application layer.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
NBR functionality features the Meeting Zone architecture. What is the purpose of this?
A. allows storage of data, video, and audio streams in separate databases
B. allows local storage of data, video, and audio streams
C. allows storage of data, video, and audio streams in a single database
D. allows storage of an individual stream in a database
648-232 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
What is the maximum capacity of participants for a Cisco WebEx Meeting Center and Training Center meeting?
A. 250
B. 300
C. 400
D. 500
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
What happens to the data if the node at the branch site goes down?
A. The data is typically rerouted over the private network.
B. Data from the WebEx node is sent to SIP.
C. The client tries to reconnect to the same collaboration bridge.
D. ASR will condense the information into one outbound stream.
648-232 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which feature in Cisco WebEx Meeting Center allows you to collaboratively brainstorm ideas and take notes?
A. integrated audio and VoIP
B. whiteboard
C. Network-Based Recording
D. WebEx One-Click
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
If an Active Directory Federation Services customer chooses to enable IWA, what will WebEx Federated SSO use to
take the Windows login from the PC directly, so that end users do not need to sign in at all?
A. WebEx One-Click
B. Kerberos integration method
C. SAML
D. IDM
648-232 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
What is the number one customer complaint surveyed by technical support organizations?
A. cost of service
B. time that it takes to resolve issue
C. lack of resolution
D. time that it takes to reach a service representative
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
What should be enabled so that users do not have to enter their username and password?
A. SAML
B. IDP
C. Kerberos
D. Integrated Windows Authentication
648-232 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
Cloud-connected audio was designed for which customers?
A. customers with Cisco Unified MeetingPlace
B. customers with TSP audio
C. customers with less than 200 employees
D. enterprise and Global 3.0 customers
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 31
How do you share data from Cisco TelePresence WebEx OneTouch?
A. The host must pass the ball.
B. The user must connect to the VGA cable to become the active presenter.
C. Only the host can share data.
D. TelePresence is an audio-only platform and data cannot be shared.
648-232 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 32
The current WebEx audio solution requires all audio to flow through the PSTN. How does this differ from cloud connected audio?
A. Customers connect via a VPN.
B. Customers connect with Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
C. Customers connect through a direct IP connection.
D. Customers connect via a media gateway.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Which two platforms are the first to be combined to make up the WebEx Meetings shared SaaS platform?
A. Cisco TelePresence Callway and WebEx Connect
B. Connect and WebEx
C. Quad and Cisco TelePresence Callway
D. WebEx Quad
648-232 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
Which new WebEx feature allows for the main video to switch automatically to the present speaker, using voice activation?
A. Cisco TelePresence
B. Cisco ActivePresence
C. multipoint video
D. WebEx One-Click
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
With regard to conference node redundancy, if a region requires 2400 G.711 ports, then how many nodes should it include?
A. Two nodes, each with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports
B. Three nodes, each with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports
C. One node with a capacity of 2400 G.711 ports
D. One node with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports
648-232 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 36
Which statement is true about deploying WebEx OneTouch?
A. WebEx-enabled meetings do not use ports in the CTMS.
B. The WebEx plug-in is not used for WebEx OneTouch scheduling.
C. Outbound TCP 443 SSL connections are not able to pass through the system firewall.
D. WebEx OneTouch supports a proxy server.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 37
Which task cannot be done by the site administrator, but must be done by opening a request with the WebEx support team?
A. Update user accounts.
B. Deactivate user accounts.
C. Delete users.
D. Add users.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 38
You are late for a meeting and you missed the first half of the conversation. Which feature allows you to never miss the contents of a meeting?
A. Cisco ActivePresence
B. Network-Based Recording
C. hands-on labs
D. breakout sessions
Correct Answer: B

648-232 dumps

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[Hottest Questions] High Quality Cisco 640-692 Dumps RSTECH Exam Questions With Accurate Answers

January 23, 2018January 23, 2018 softkeysd

What makes Pass4itsure 642-737 dumps unique? The Supporting Cisco routing and Switching Network Devices (640-692 RSTECH) exam is a 90 minutes (60-70 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCT Routing & Switching certification. High quality Cisco 640-692 dumps RSTECH exam questions with accurate answers. “Supporting Cisco routing and Switching Network Devices” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 640-692 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 640-692 exam. Most of the 640-692 exam students want to pass Cisco exam certifications in the first attempt and they also don’t want to face any issue while preparation of CCT Routing & Switching 640-692 exam questions offered by Pass4itsure, it is possible to pass RSTECH 640-692 new questions with complete peace of mind and you can achieve high target by getting RSTECH https://www.pass4itsure.com/640-692.html training material from our top quality CCT Routing & Switching 640-692 dumps which is especially designed by Cisco certified experts.

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640-692 dumps

Pass4isture Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 640-692 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-27)

QUESTION 1
Which router can be used for disk-in-access to the router CLI management purposes and does not usually pass normal network traffic?
A. AUX
B. Gigabit Ethernet
C. Fast Ethernet
D. Channelized serial
640-692 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two pieces of information does the show ip interface brief command display? (Choose two)
A. Encapsulation type
B. Interface status
C. Layer 2 address
D. Layer 3 address
E. Keep alive
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
The pins and RJ-45 are numbered from 1 through 8. With the material points of the plug facing toward you, pin 1 is the leftmost pin. Which two sets are looped on an RJ-45 T1 loopback plug? (Choose two)
A. Pins 1 and 4
B. Pins 1 and 7
C. Pins 2 and 5
D. Pins 2 and 8
E. Pins 1 and 5
F. Pins 2 and 7
640-692 dumps Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
What are two ways to open Microsoft Notepad on a Windows-based computer? (Choose two)
A. Start > Run Enter Notepad and ‘Ink OK
B. Start > Control Panel > Notepad
C. Start > All Programs > Notepad
D. Start > All Programs > Accessories > Notepad
E. Start > All Programs > Microsoft Office > Notepad
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
Which three of the following statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Each IP address has two parts: a network ID and a host ID
B. An IP subnet equals a broadcast domain.
C. An IPv4 address contains 36 bits
D. 172.16.1.18 is a Class A address
E. A subnet address is created by borrowing bits from the original host ID
640-692 pdf Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 6
What makes Avaya’s Fabric Connect fundamentally different to traditional IP networks?
A. It uses MPLS in new and more efficient ways
B. It uses OSPF to do the routing, based on the MAC address
C. It uses a new Avaya proprietary protocol to get away from IP with all its limitations
D. It enables a dynamic, agile and resilient network where Services need only be configured at the edge
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
How are Avaya’s Core Ethernet Switches differentiated from other Switches in the industry? (Select the two correct options)
A. They consistently implement our differentiating capabilities regardless of the ‘size’ of the network
B. They use a unique Clustering technology
C. They are smaller and lighter
D. They support the Spanning Tree Protocol
640-692 vce Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
We are at the beginning of an emerging market defined by which two of the following key inflection points? (Select two)
A. Consumerization of IT
B. Client-server computing
C. ATM to the desktop
D. Cloud computing and networking
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
Select the three best reasons for giving administrators their own login and only the access privileges they need for their job. (Select three)
A. Increases the amount of software that needs to be installed
B. Increases network security
C. Helps to reduce downtime due to configuration errors
D. Allows provisioning changes to be tracked by individual user
640-692 exam Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 10
Your colleague is finalizing an Avaya Aura project with a customer. He found out that some of the existing non-Avaya edge switches will also need to be replaced and asks you “What kind of savings do Avaya Edge Switches offer over the competition?” Which three of the following reasons would you offer him? (Select three)
A. Avaya Edge Switches can run on DC power, which enable up to 30% energy savings.
B. Huge time savings because there is no need provision each phone and each edge switch manually.
C. It eliminates human error in ensuring that the correct VLAN and QoS setting get assigned to each device automatically.
D. When Miercom tested the ERS 4548GT-PWR series for example, they found that on D average it was 20-25% more energy efficient than the Cisco Catalyst 3750-X solution and the HP E4500 series solution and 50% more efficient than the Juniper EX 4200.
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 11
While discussing a proposition with a prospective customer, they ask what the most important value propositions are that Avaya Data Center Solutions bring to the table. (Select the four most important value propositions)
A. Cost – Minimizing and Simplifying
B. Operations – Improving Time-to-Service
C. Performance – Applications are optimized
D. Availability – of business operations
E. Scalability – Built for Seamless Growth
F. Virtualization – of server capacity
640-692 dumps Correct Answer: CDEF

QUESTION 12
A customer asks you about the benefits of stacking Avaya’s Edge Switches. Which three of the following responses are correct? (Select three)
A. Stacks share a single Power Supply, therefore save costs
B. Stacks offer scalability. Units can be added as needed – up to eight
C. Stacks are managed as a single entity
D. Stacks protect against unit or cable failure with fail-safe stacking
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 13
What makes Avaya’s Fabric Connect fundamentally different to traditional IP networks?
A. It uses OSPF to do the routing, based on the MAC address
B. It uses a new Avaya proprietary protocol to get away from IP with all its limitations
C. It uses MPLS in new and more efficient ways
D. It enables a dynamic, agile and resilient network where Services need only be configured at the edge
640-692 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Two things that help to make the IT department more cost efficient include? (Select two)
A. Automating repetitive tasks
B. Having multiple administrators share the same PC
C. Installing admin software on every admin computer
D. Reducing the learning of multiple user interfaces
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 15
Avaya has a distinct advantage in the market because, unlike other vendors, our Fabric solution is not exclusive to only the largest and most expensive products. Which Avaya products currently support for our Fabric Connect technology? (Select three)
A. ERS 3500 (typically used at the Branch Edge)
B. VSP 9000 and ERS 8800 (typically used in the Core)
C. ERS 4800 and VSP 4000 (typically used at the Wiring Closet Edge)
D. VSP 7000 (typically used at the Data Center Edge)
640-692 vce Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 16
Which three of the following characteristics represents the key highlights of ERS 4800 models? (Select three)
A. Stackable Chassis compatibility
B. Support for 1/10 Gig SFP+ uplinks
C. IPv6 forwarding of data traffic
D. Avaya Fabric Connect services to the wiring closet
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 17
A customer is questioning the time savings provided by Avaya’s “Auto Unit Replacement”. He says that replacing the unit is only a small part of the whole process. Configuring the new unit can take a long time. How could you respond?
A. Explain that Miercom tested Avaya’s claim back in 2011 and stated “When replacing a unit in a Stack, the new unit was able to boot up, load the configuration and become operational in two minutes and 11 seconds’.
B. Make your point by saying that a well-trained Avaya engineer can replace a unit in just over ten minutes.
C. Make sure that the customer understands that “Auto Unit Replacement” only means the physical replacement of that unit and does not include configuration.
640-692 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
How does Avaya VENA Fabric Connect help to reduce time-to-service? (Select two)
A. Provisioning changes only need to be made to the edge of the network rather than to every device and link
B. It replaces multiple legacy protocols with a vastly simplified implementation, extending VLANs Fabric wide
C. It uses industry standard CLI commands
D. It uses MPLS in its core
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 19
Avaya Wireless solutions address the market with which three of the following key enablers: (Select three)
A. Emergency services
B. Removing a need for wireless transmission
C. Enabling BYOD
D. Relying on a carrier’s network for wireless
E. Next generation unified WLAN
640-692 dumps Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 20
Which Avaya Switch is ideally suited to deliver today’s pressing need for flexible, high-speed Ethernet connectivity in the high-performance Data Center Top-of-Rack (ToR) role?
A. V5P7000
B. ERS4800
C. VSP9000
D. ERS 5000
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
You have a large enterprise customer who requires a next-generation solution for a mission- critical Data Center that supports their requirements for multi-tenancy. Select the product that meets their requirements for a future-ready platform (40/100 Gigabit Ethernet) and cost- effectively facilitates service integration.
A. ERS8600
B. VSP9000
C. ERS8800
D. ER5 8300
640-692 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
The Shortest Path Bridging (SPB) standard is supported by multiple vendors. Which of the following features are added to create Avaya’s Fabric Connect technology, our extended implementation of SPB? (Select three)
A. Cloud based virtualization
B. Unicast and Multicast support
C. High-availability at the Edge
D. Layer 3 support
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 23 Titan Communications is a provider of cable TV, wireless, and wireline phone services. Its stated business objective is to transition from a product centric to a customer centric organization. What is the primary benefit that an SOA would provide Titan?
A. Improved business/IT alignment.
B. Improved quality of customer service
C. Consistency in behavior across customer channels
D. Agility to change processes or introduce new products quickly
640-692 vce Answer: A

QUESTION 24 Felicity Financial Services is a full service brokerage. Their primary business objective is to be the premier provider of tailored services to leading edge investors in areas of fixed income securities, vanilla and exotic derivatives, and whole loan investments. What is the primary benefit that an SOA would provide Felicity?
A. Improved business/IT alignment.
B. Improved quality of customer service
C. Consistency in information and behavior across channels
D. Agility to change processes or introduce new products quickly
Answer: D

QUESTION 25 Chasm, Inc., a clothing retailer, is executing on their SOA program. They have created a reference architecture, roadmap, constructed common services such as single-sign on, have identified project priorities. Some members of IT management are unaware of the SOA program, while other managers are unclear as to why they are undertaking it. One of these managers is responsible for deploying a new system in support of new promotions. Which of the SOA domains could most use improving (choose two)?
A. Business Process & Strategy
B. Architecture
C. Costs & Benefits
D. Building Blocks
E. Projects & Applications
F. Organization & Governance
640-692 exam Answer: CF

QUESTION 26 Great North Travel is a multi-national travel agency implementing an SOA program. The program was sponsored by the highest levels of both business and IT management, and is seen as a key tactic to their customer satisfaction improvement and new product introduction strategies. A number of in-progress initiatives are using various EAI technologies to perform integration, and there is no sharing of artifacts among these initiatives. Furthermore, these initiatives all seem to be developing separate, and overlapping, customer data stores. Which of the SOA domains could most use improving (choose two)?
A. Business Process & Strategy
B. Architecture
C. Costs & Benefits
D. Building Blocks
E. Projects & Applications
F. Organization & Governance
Answer: DF

QUESTION 27 Acme Builders, inc. has created an SOA roadmap, reference architecture and has exposed an initial handful of data access and shared business services. The development team currently handles all requests for support, diagnosis, and connectivity to these services through manual / ad hoc means. The number of consumers of these services is growing. Which two service lifecycle phases are currently the most appropriate to their SOA transformation program?
A. Monitor
B. Design
C. Expose D.
Build
E. Compose
F. Secure
640-692 dumps Answer: AF

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Our Cisco 640-692 dumps questions is updated with the course outline of Supporting Cisco Routing and Switching Network Devices (RSTECH) test and all the necessary things are included in it. “Supporting Cisco routing and Switching Network Devices”, also known as 640-692 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Pass4itsure Cisco 640-692 dumps exam questions answers are updated (67 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of https://www.pass4itsure.com/640-692.html dumps is CCT Routing & Switching.

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December 22, 2017December 22, 2023 softkeysd

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Pass4isture Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-180 Dumps Exam Q&As:
1. R. L. Rivers Company is trying to prevent purchasing from non-approved suppliers. Which method could be used to implement this policy?
A.Use Company (Vendor) status.
B.Create a Workflow approval process.
C.Use Application Designer to hide the Vendor field.
D.Use Purchase Contracts; make this a required field.
E.Set Security application to lock down Purchase Requisitions.
300-180 exam Answer: B
2. FlyNow Airlines performs materials management activities (Item, Inventory Balance tracking, Material Issues/Returns/Receipts) in an external ERP system. What integration points must be implemented in order to keep Maximo updated with the latest item balances and material usage costs?
A.Vendors, Item Master, Inventory
B.Item Master, Inventory, Receipts
C.Vendors, Chart of Accounts, Item Master
D.Item Master, Inventory, Receipts, Issues/Returns
Answer: D
3. Fleet Corporation requires a user dialog to display when a corrective maintenance work order is created and there is a Preventive Maintenance schedule that is due within the next seven days. What must be accomplished in order to address this requirement? (Choose TWO)
A.Extend the PM Class.
B.Set up a standard cron task. C.Set
the Alert Lead on the PM. D.Configure
the PM Alert Option. E.Create an Alert
Lead field on the PM.
300-180 dumps Answer: CD
4. FlyNow Airlines wants to display and store the name of the person entering a work order. What are the correct steps? (Choose THREE)
A.Run configdb.
B.Rebuild the maximo.ear file.
C.Import the changes to the xml file.
D.Add a display name field using the Application Designer.
E.Create a CROSSOVER domain and associate to the display name field.
Answer: ADE
5. FlyNow Airlines has a requirement to migrate active Job Plans from a legacy system to Maximo. The existing External Interface does not have a Job Plan inbound interface. Where are the references to the MBOs created?
A.External Systems
B.Integration Objects
C.Integration Interfaces
D.Database Configuration
300-180 pdf Answer: B
6. Gander Lumber Company wants to share item data across two business units in different countries. Each business unit has a different financial process. What organization and site structure is recommended?
A.one organization with two sites
B.two organizations with one site each
C.an item set and one organization with two sites
D.an item set and two organizations with one site each
Answer: D
7. What architecture does Maximo 6 use?
A.n-tier
B.1-tier
C.2-tier
D.client/server
300-180 vce Answer: A
8. BMI Corporation has a requirement to categorize work orders by an attribute so they can be viewed and managed as a group. How is this accomplished in Maximo? (Choose TWO)
A.Class B.Value
List C.Work Type
D.Service Group
E.Classifications
Answer: CE
9. Mitchell Corporation wants to define an entity that is routinely transferred into a storeroom at a scheduled interval or upon fault detection. This entity can be repaired and re-used. What is the term to describe this entity in Maximo?
A.Item
B.Asset
C.Location
D.Rotating Item
300-180 exam Answer: D
10. Gander Lumber Company needs to identify and notify the responsible person when warranties for critical assets are about to expire. What is used to achieve this client requirement?
A.Escalation
B.Email Listener
C.Purchase Order
D.Service License Agreement (SLA)
Answer: A
11. What is true about an asset? (Choose TWO)
A.can only have one meter
B.can be moved between sites C.must
be a member of an Item Set D.must be
associated with a location E.can be
moved between organizations
300-180 dumps Answer: BE
12. Acme Corporation has a requirement to send emails to administrators when certain assets are approaching the end of their lease. What application is required to send these emails?
A.Workflow
B.Escalation
C.Email Listener
D.SLA (Service Level Agreement)
Answer: B
13. What data can be shared across organizations? (Choose TWO)
A.PMs
B.Items
C.Assets
D.Job Plans
E.Safety Plans
300-180 pdf Answer: BD
14. What best describes the relationship between assets in Maximo?
A.networked with an asset having many parents and many children
B.hierarchical with an asset having only one parent but many children
C.location centric with assets grouped by the location to which they are assigned
D.system centric with all assets defined as components assigned to a logical system
Answer: B
15. The accountant on the client core team wants to know what costs Maximo tracks on work orders. What costs will Maximo track? (Choose THREE)
A.Tools
B.Labor
C.Asset
D.Services
E.Company
F.Work Order
300-180 vce Answer: ABD
16. What type of associations can be made between People and Assets? (Choose TWO)
A.User
B.Labor
C.Default
D.Primary
E.Custodian
Answer: AE
17. From where can an Asset inherit its specification attributes? (Choose TWO)
A.Item
B.Location
C.Spare parts
D.Classification
300-180 exam Answer: AD
18. What is the best use of a Workflow sub-process?
A.to start escalations
B.for assigning actions
C.as a common process
D.to apply custom classes
Answer: C
19. ABC Trucking Company has a requirement to define an entity that is uniquely identified and not typically moved. The entity may contain further entities that can be moved. What term is used to describe this entity in Maximo?
A.Item
B.Asset
C.System
D.Location
300-180 dumps Answer: D
20. During a business process workshop, the client makes the following statement: “We have an existing asset classification structure that needs to be supported in Maximo. How many classification hierarchy levels can Maximo support?” What is the correct response to the client’s question?
A.Ten
B.Five
C.Three
D.Unlimited
Answer: D
21.The exhibit represents a simple routed network. Node 7 is a Windows 2000 Professional machine that establishes a TCP communication with Node 10, a Windows 2003 Server. The routers are Cisco 2500 series running IOS 11.2. While working at Node 10, you run a packet capture. Packets received by Node 10, and sent from Node 7 will reveal which of the following combination of source IP and source Physical addresses:
A. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address for Node 7
B. Source IP address 50.0.50.1, Source Physical address for Node 7
C. Source IP address for Router D’s Int E0, Source Physical address for Node 7
D. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address Router D’s Int E0
E. Source IP addresses for both Nodes 7 and Router D’s Int E0, Source Physical address for both Nodes 7 and Router D’s Int E0.
300-180 pdf Answer: D
22.You have implemented an IPSec policy, using only AH. You are analyzing your network traffic in Network Monitor, which of the following statements are true about your network traffic.?
A. You will not be able to view the data in the packets, as it is encrypted.
B. You will not be able to identify the upper layer protocol.
C. You will be able to view the unencrypted data in the packets.
D. You will be able to identify the encryption algorithm in use.
E. You will not be able to view the packet header.
Answer: C
23.In order to perform promiscuous mode captures using the Wireshark capture tool on a Windows Server 2003 machine, what must first be installed?
A. IPv4 stack
B. IPv6 stack
C. WinPcap
D. Nothing, it will capture by default
E. At least two network adapters
300-180 vce Answer: C
24.You are configuring the rules on your firewall, and need to take into consideration that some clients in the network are using automatic addressing. What is the IP address range reserved for internal use for APIPA in Microsoft networks?
A. 169.254.0.0 /4
B. 169.254.0.0 /16
C. 169.254.0.0 /8
D. 169.254.0.0 /0
E. 168.255.0.0 /16
Answer: B
25.If you capture an 802.11 frame, and the ToDS bit is set to zero and the FromDS bit is set to zero, what type of WLAN is this frame a part of?
A. Mesh
B. Broadcast
C. Infrastructure
D. Hierarchical
E. Ad Hoc
300-180 exam Answer:E
26.There are several options available to you for your new wireless networking technologies, and you are examining how different systems function. What transmission system uses short bursts combined together as a channel?
A. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
B. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
C. Lamar Anthell Transmission (LAT)
D. Digital Band Hopping (DBH)
E. Digital Channel Hopping (DCH)
Answer: A
27.You have just installed a new Intrusion Detection System in your network. You are concerned that there are functions this system will not be able to perform. What is a reason an IDS cannot manage hardware failures?
A. The IDS can only manage RAID 5 failures.
B. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP alert messages.
C. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP trap messages.
D. The IDS cannot be programmed to respond to hardware failures. E.
The IDS can only inform you that an event happened.
300-180 dumps Answer: E
28.For the new Snort rules you are building, it will be required to have Snort examine inside the content of the packet. Which keyword is used to tell Snort to ignore a defined number of bytes before looking inside the packet for a content match?
A. Depth
B. Offset
C. Nocase
D. Flow_Control
E. Classtype
Answer: B
29.You have recently taken over the security of a mid-sized network. You are reviewing the current configuration of the IPTables firewall, and notice the following rule: ipchains -A input -p TCP -d 0.0.0.0/0 12345 -j DENY What is the function of this rule?
A. This rule for the output chain states that all incoming packets from any host to port 12345 are to be denied.
B. This rule for the input chain states that all incoming packets from any host to port 12345 are to be denied.
C. This rule for the input chain states that any TCP traffic from any address destined for any IP address and to port 12345 is to be denied.
D. This rule for the output chain states that any TCP traffic from any address destined for any IP address and to port 12345 is to be denied.
E. This rule for the input chain states that all TCP packets inbound from any network destined to any network is to be denied for ports 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5.
300-180 pdf Answer: C
300-180 dumps

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