Category: Cisco

[Hottest Questions] High Quality Cisco 640-692 Dumps RSTECH Exam Questions With Accurate Answers

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What makes Pass4itsure 642-737 dumps unique? The Supporting Cisco routing and Switching Network Devices (640-692 RSTECH) exam is a 90 minutes (60-70 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCT Routing & Switching certification. High quality Cisco 640-692 dumps RSTECH exam questions with accurate answers. “Supporting Cisco routing and Switching Network Devices” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 640-692 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 640-692 exam. Most of the 640-692 exam students want to pass Cisco exam certifications in the first attempt and they also don’t want to face any issue while preparation of CCT Routing & Switching 640-692 exam questions offered by Pass4itsure, it is possible to pass RSTECH 640-692 new questions with complete peace of mind and you can achieve high target by getting RSTECH https://www.pass4itsure.com/640-692.html training material from our top quality CCT Routing & Switching 640-692 dumps which is especially designed by Cisco certified experts.

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640-692 dumps

Pass4isture Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 640-692 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-27)

QUESTION 1
Which router can be used for disk-in-access to the router CLI management purposes and does not usually pass normal network traffic?
A. AUX
B. Gigabit Ethernet
C. Fast Ethernet
D. Channelized serial
640-692 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two pieces of information does the show ip interface brief command display? (Choose two)
A. Encapsulation type
B. Interface status
C. Layer 2 address
D. Layer 3 address
E. Keep alive
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
The pins and RJ-45 are numbered from 1 through 8. With the material points of the plug facing toward you, pin 1 is the leftmost pin. Which two sets are looped on an RJ-45 T1 loopback plug? (Choose two)
A. Pins 1 and 4
B. Pins 1 and 7
C. Pins 2 and 5
D. Pins 2 and 8
E. Pins 1 and 5
F. Pins 2 and 7
640-692 dumps Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
What are two ways to open Microsoft Notepad on a Windows-based computer? (Choose two)
A. Start > Run Enter Notepad and ‘Ink OK
B. Start > Control Panel > Notepad
C. Start > All Programs > Notepad
D. Start > All Programs > Accessories > Notepad
E. Start > All Programs > Microsoft Office > Notepad
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
Which three of the following statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Each IP address has two parts: a network ID and a host ID
B. An IP subnet equals a broadcast domain.
C. An IPv4 address contains 36 bits
D. 172.16.1.18 is a Class A address
E. A subnet address is created by borrowing bits from the original host ID
640-692 pdf Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 6
What makes Avaya’s Fabric Connect fundamentally different to traditional IP networks?
A. It uses MPLS in new and more efficient ways
B. It uses OSPF to do the routing, based on the MAC address
C. It uses a new Avaya proprietary protocol to get away from IP with all its limitations
D. It enables a dynamic, agile and resilient network where Services need only be configured at the edge
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
How are Avaya’s Core Ethernet Switches differentiated from other Switches in the industry? (Select the two correct options)
A. They consistently implement our differentiating capabilities regardless of the ‘size’ of the network
B. They use a unique Clustering technology
C. They are smaller and lighter
D. They support the Spanning Tree Protocol
640-692 vce Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
We are at the beginning of an emerging market defined by which two of the following key inflection points? (Select two)
A. Consumerization of IT
B. Client-server computing
C. ATM to the desktop
D. Cloud computing and networking
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
Select the three best reasons for giving administrators their own login and only the access privileges they need for their job. (Select three)
A. Increases the amount of software that needs to be installed
B. Increases network security
C. Helps to reduce downtime due to configuration errors
D. Allows provisioning changes to be tracked by individual user
640-692 exam Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 10
Your colleague is finalizing an Avaya Aura project with a customer. He found out that some of the existing non-Avaya edge switches will also need to be replaced and asks you “What kind of savings do Avaya Edge Switches offer over the competition?” Which three of the following reasons would you offer him? (Select three)
A. Avaya Edge Switches can run on DC power, which enable up to 30% energy savings.
B. Huge time savings because there is no need provision each phone and each edge switch manually.
C. It eliminates human error in ensuring that the correct VLAN and QoS setting get assigned to each device automatically.
D. When Miercom tested the ERS 4548GT-PWR series for example, they found that on D average it was 20-25% more energy efficient than the Cisco Catalyst 3750-X solution and the HP E4500 series solution and 50% more efficient than the Juniper EX 4200.
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 11
While discussing a proposition with a prospective customer, they ask what the most important value propositions are that Avaya Data Center Solutions bring to the table. (Select the four most important value propositions)
A. Cost – Minimizing and Simplifying
B. Operations – Improving Time-to-Service
C. Performance – Applications are optimized
D. Availability – of business operations
E. Scalability – Built for Seamless Growth
F. Virtualization – of server capacity
640-692 dumps Correct Answer: CDEF

QUESTION 12
A customer asks you about the benefits of stacking Avaya’s Edge Switches. Which three of the following responses are correct? (Select three)
A. Stacks share a single Power Supply, therefore save costs
B. Stacks offer scalability. Units can be added as needed – up to eight
C. Stacks are managed as a single entity
D. Stacks protect against unit or cable failure with fail-safe stacking
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 13
What makes Avaya’s Fabric Connect fundamentally different to traditional IP networks?
A. It uses OSPF to do the routing, based on the MAC address
B. It uses a new Avaya proprietary protocol to get away from IP with all its limitations
C. It uses MPLS in new and more efficient ways
D. It enables a dynamic, agile and resilient network where Services need only be configured at the edge
640-692 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Two things that help to make the IT department more cost efficient include? (Select two)
A. Automating repetitive tasks
B. Having multiple administrators share the same PC
C. Installing admin software on every admin computer
D. Reducing the learning of multiple user interfaces
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 15
Avaya has a distinct advantage in the market because, unlike other vendors, our Fabric solution is not exclusive to only the largest and most expensive products. Which Avaya products currently support for our Fabric Connect technology? (Select three)
A. ERS 3500 (typically used at the Branch Edge)
B. VSP 9000 and ERS 8800 (typically used in the Core)
C. ERS 4800 and VSP 4000 (typically used at the Wiring Closet Edge)
D. VSP 7000 (typically used at the Data Center Edge)
640-692 vce Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 16
Which three of the following characteristics represents the key highlights of ERS 4800 models? (Select three)
A. Stackable Chassis compatibility
B. Support for 1/10 Gig SFP+ uplinks
C. IPv6 forwarding of data traffic
D. Avaya Fabric Connect services to the wiring closet
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 17
A customer is questioning the time savings provided by Avaya’s “Auto Unit Replacement”. He says that replacing the unit is only a small part of the whole process. Configuring the new unit can take a long time. How could you respond?
A. Explain that Miercom tested Avaya’s claim back in 2011 and stated “When replacing a unit in a Stack, the new unit was able to boot up, load the configuration and become operational in two minutes and 11 seconds’.
B. Make your point by saying that a well-trained Avaya engineer can replace a unit in just over ten minutes.
C. Make sure that the customer understands that “Auto Unit Replacement” only means the physical replacement of that unit and does not include configuration.
640-692 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
How does Avaya VENA Fabric Connect help to reduce time-to-service? (Select two)
A. Provisioning changes only need to be made to the edge of the network rather than to every device and link
B. It replaces multiple legacy protocols with a vastly simplified implementation, extending VLANs Fabric wide
C. It uses industry standard CLI commands
D. It uses MPLS in its core
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 19
Avaya Wireless solutions address the market with which three of the following key enablers: (Select three)
A. Emergency services
B. Removing a need for wireless transmission
C. Enabling BYOD
D. Relying on a carrier’s network for wireless
E. Next generation unified WLAN
640-692 dumps Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 20
Which Avaya Switch is ideally suited to deliver today’s pressing need for flexible, high-speed Ethernet connectivity in the high-performance Data Center Top-of-Rack (ToR) role?
A. V5P7000
B. ERS4800
C. VSP9000
D. ERS 5000
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
You have a large enterprise customer who requires a next-generation solution for a mission- critical Data Center that supports their requirements for multi-tenancy. Select the product that meets their requirements for a future-ready platform (40/100 Gigabit Ethernet) and cost- effectively facilitates service integration.
A. ERS8600
B. VSP9000
C. ERS8800
D. ER5 8300
640-692 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
The Shortest Path Bridging (SPB) standard is supported by multiple vendors. Which of the following features are added to create Avaya’s Fabric Connect technology, our extended implementation of SPB? (Select three)
A. Cloud based virtualization
B. Unicast and Multicast support
C. High-availability at the Edge
D. Layer 3 support
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 23 Titan Communications is a provider of cable TV, wireless, and wireline phone services. Its stated business objective is to transition from a product centric to a customer centric organization. What is the primary benefit that an SOA would provide Titan?
A. Improved business/IT alignment.
B. Improved quality of customer service
C. Consistency in behavior across customer channels
D. Agility to change processes or introduce new products quickly
640-692 vce Answer: A

QUESTION 24 Felicity Financial Services is a full service brokerage. Their primary business objective is to be the premier provider of tailored services to leading edge investors in areas of fixed income securities, vanilla and exotic derivatives, and whole loan investments. What is the primary benefit that an SOA would provide Felicity?
A. Improved business/IT alignment.
B. Improved quality of customer service
C. Consistency in information and behavior across channels
D. Agility to change processes or introduce new products quickly
Answer: D

QUESTION 25 Chasm, Inc., a clothing retailer, is executing on their SOA program. They have created a reference architecture, roadmap, constructed common services such as single-sign on, have identified project priorities. Some members of IT management are unaware of the SOA program, while other managers are unclear as to why they are undertaking it. One of these managers is responsible for deploying a new system in support of new promotions. Which of the SOA domains could most use improving (choose two)?
A. Business Process & Strategy
B. Architecture
C. Costs & Benefits
D. Building Blocks
E. Projects & Applications
F. Organization & Governance
640-692 exam Answer: CF

QUESTION 26 Great North Travel is a multi-national travel agency implementing an SOA program. The program was sponsored by the highest levels of both business and IT management, and is seen as a key tactic to their customer satisfaction improvement and new product introduction strategies. A number of in-progress initiatives are using various EAI technologies to perform integration, and there is no sharing of artifacts among these initiatives. Furthermore, these initiatives all seem to be developing separate, and overlapping, customer data stores. Which of the SOA domains could most use improving (choose two)?
A. Business Process & Strategy
B. Architecture
C. Costs & Benefits
D. Building Blocks
E. Projects & Applications
F. Organization & Governance
Answer: DF

QUESTION 27 Acme Builders, inc. has created an SOA roadmap, reference architecture and has exposed an initial handful of data access and shared business services. The development team currently handles all requests for support, diagnosis, and connectivity to these services through manual / ad hoc means. The number of consumers of these services is growing. Which two service lifecycle phases are currently the most appropriate to their SOA transformation program?
A. Monitor
B. Design
C. Expose D.
Build
E. Compose
F. Secure
640-692 dumps Answer: AF

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[Hottest Questions] Discount Cisco CCNA 300-180 Dumps DCIT Exam PDF Questions with Free Updated Youtube Study

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Pass4isture Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-180 Dumps Exam Q&As:
1. R. L. Rivers Company is trying to prevent purchasing from non-approved suppliers. Which method could be used to implement this policy?
A.Use Company (Vendor) status.
B.Create a Workflow approval process.
C.Use Application Designer to hide the Vendor field.
D.Use Purchase Contracts; make this a required field.
E.Set Security application to lock down Purchase Requisitions.
300-180 exam Answer: B
2. FlyNow Airlines performs materials management activities (Item, Inventory Balance tracking, Material Issues/Returns/Receipts) in an external ERP system. What integration points must be implemented in order to keep Maximo updated with the latest item balances and material usage costs?
A.Vendors, Item Master, Inventory
B.Item Master, Inventory, Receipts
C.Vendors, Chart of Accounts, Item Master
D.Item Master, Inventory, Receipts, Issues/Returns
Answer: D
3. Fleet Corporation requires a user dialog to display when a corrective maintenance work order is created and there is a Preventive Maintenance schedule that is due within the next seven days. What must be accomplished in order to address this requirement? (Choose TWO)
A.Extend the PM Class.
B.Set up a standard cron task. C.Set
the Alert Lead on the PM. D.Configure
the PM Alert Option. E.Create an Alert
Lead field on the PM.
300-180  dumps Answer: CD
4. FlyNow Airlines wants to display and store the name of the person entering a work order. What are the correct steps? (Choose THREE)
A.Run configdb.
B.Rebuild the maximo.ear file.
C.Import the changes to the xml file.
D.Add a display name field using the Application Designer.
E.Create a CROSSOVER domain and associate to the display name field.
Answer: ADE
5. FlyNow Airlines has a requirement to migrate active Job Plans from a legacy system to Maximo. The  existing External Interface does not have a Job Plan inbound interface. Where are the references to the MBOs created?
A.External Systems
B.Integration Objects
C.Integration Interfaces
D.Database Configuration
300-180 pdf Answer: B
6. Gander Lumber Company wants to share item data across two business units in different countries. Each business unit has a different financial process. What organization and site structure is recommended?
A.one organization with two sites
B.two organizations with one site each
C.an item set and one organization with two sites
D.an item set and two organizations with one site each
Answer: D
7. What architecture does Maximo 6 use?
A.n-tier
B.1-tier
C.2-tier
D.client/server
300-180  vce Answer: A
8. BMI Corporation has a requirement to categorize work orders by an attribute so they can be viewed and managed as a group. How is this accomplished in Maximo? (Choose TWO)
A.Class B.Value
List C.Work Type
D.Service Group
E.Classifications
Answer: CE
9. Mitchell Corporation wants to define an entity that is routinely transferred into a storeroom at a scheduled interval or upon fault detection. This entity can be repaired and re-used. What is the term to describe this entity in Maximo?
A.Item
B.Asset
C.Location
D.Rotating Item
300-180  exam Answer: D
10. Gander Lumber Company needs to identify and notify the responsible person when warranties for critical assets are about to expire. What is used to achieve this client requirement?
A.Escalation
B.Email Listener
C.Purchase Order
D.Service License Agreement (SLA)
Answer: A
11. What is true about an asset? (Choose TWO)
A.can only have one meter
B.can be moved between sites C.must
be a member of an Item Set D.must be
associated with a location E.can be
moved between organizations
300-180 dumps Answer: BE
12. Acme Corporation has a requirement to send emails to administrators when certain assets are approaching the end of their lease. What application is required to send these emails?
A.Workflow
B.Escalation
C.Email Listener
D.SLA (Service Level Agreement)
Answer: B
13. What data can be shared across organizations? (Choose TWO)
A.PMs
B.Items
C.Assets
D.Job Plans
E.Safety Plans
300-180 pdf Answer: BD
14. What best describes the relationship between assets in Maximo?
A.networked with an asset having many parents and many children
B.hierarchical with an asset having only one parent but many children
C.location centric with assets grouped by the location to which they are assigned
D.system centric with all assets defined as components assigned to a logical system
Answer: B
15. The accountant on the client core team wants to know what costs Maximo tracks on work orders. What costs will Maximo track? (Choose THREE)
A.Tools
B.Labor
C.Asset
D.Services
E.Company
F.Work Order
300-180 vce Answer: ABD
16. What type of associations can be made between People and Assets? (Choose TWO)
A.User
B.Labor
C.Default
D.Primary
E.Custodian
Answer: AE
17. From where can an Asset inherit its specification attributes? (Choose TWO)
A.Item
B.Location
C.Spare parts
D.Classification
300-180 exam Answer: AD
18. What is the best use of a Workflow sub-process?
A.to start escalations
B.for assigning actions
C.as a common process
D.to apply custom classes
Answer: C
19. ABC Trucking Company has a requirement to define an entity that is uniquely identified and not typically moved. The entity may contain further entities that can be moved. What term is used to describe this entity in Maximo?
A.Item
B.Asset
C.System
D.Location
300-180 dumps Answer: D
20. During a business process workshop, the client makes the following statement: “We have an existing asset classification structure that needs to be supported in Maximo. How many classification hierarchy levels can Maximo support?” What is the correct response to the client’s question?
A.Ten
B.Five
C.Three
D.Unlimited
Answer: D
21.The exhibit represents a simple routed network. Node 7 is a Windows 2000 Professional machine that establishes a TCP communication with Node 10, a Windows 2003 Server. The routers are Cisco 2500 series running IOS 11.2. While working at Node 10, you run a packet capture. Packets received by Node 10, and sent from Node 7 will reveal which of the following combination of source IP and source Physical addresses:
A. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address for Node 7
B. Source IP address 50.0.50.1, Source Physical address for Node 7
C. Source IP address for Router D’s Int E0, Source Physical address for Node 7
D. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address Router D’s Int E0
E. Source IP addresses for both Nodes 7 and Router D’s Int E0, Source Physical address for both Nodes 7 and Router D’s Int E0.
300-180  pdf Answer: D
22.You have implemented an IPSec policy, using only AH. You are analyzing your network traffic in Network Monitor, which of the following statements are true about your network traffic.?
A. You will not be able to view the data in the packets, as it is encrypted.
B. You will not be able to identify the upper layer protocol.
C. You will be able to view the unencrypted data in the packets.
D. You will be able to identify the encryption algorithm in use.
E. You will not be able to view the packet header.
Answer: C
23.In order to perform promiscuous mode captures using the Wireshark capture tool on a Windows Server 2003 machine, what must first be installed?
A. IPv4 stack
B. IPv6 stack
C. WinPcap
D. Nothing, it will capture by default
E. At least two network adapters
300-180 vce Answer: C
24.You are configuring the rules on your firewall, and need to take into consideration that some clients in the network are using automatic addressing. What is the IP address range reserved for internal use for APIPA in Microsoft networks?
A. 169.254.0.0 /4
B. 169.254.0.0 /16
C. 169.254.0.0 /8
D. 169.254.0.0 /0
E. 168.255.0.0 /16
Answer: B
25.If you capture an 802.11 frame, and the ToDS bit is set to zero and the FromDS bit is set to zero, what type of WLAN is this frame a part of?
A. Mesh
B. Broadcast
C. Infrastructure
D. Hierarchical
E. Ad Hoc
300-180 exam Answer:E
26.There are several options available to you for your new wireless networking technologies, and you are examining how different systems function. What transmission system uses short bursts combined together as a channel?
A. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
B. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
C. Lamar Anthell Transmission (LAT)
D. Digital Band Hopping (DBH)
E. Digital Channel Hopping (DCH)
Answer: A
27.You have just installed a new Intrusion Detection System in your network. You are concerned that there are functions this system will not be able to perform. What is a reason an IDS cannot manage hardware failures?
A. The IDS can only manage RAID 5 failures.
B. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP alert messages.
C. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP trap messages.
D. The IDS cannot be programmed to respond to hardware failures. E.
The IDS can only inform you that an event happened.
300-180 dumps Answer: E
28.For the new Snort rules you are building, it will be required to have Snort examine inside the content of the packet. Which keyword is used to tell Snort to ignore a defined number of bytes before looking inside the packet for a content match?
A. Depth
B. Offset
C. Nocase
D. Flow_Control
E. Classtype
Answer: B
29.You have recently taken over the security of a mid-sized network. You are reviewing the current configuration of the IPTables firewall, and notice the following rule: ipchains -A input -p TCP -d 0.0.0.0/0 12345 -j DENY What is the function of this rule?
A. This rule for the output chain states that all incoming packets from any host to port 12345 are to be denied.
B. This rule for the input chain states that all incoming packets from any host to port 12345 are to be denied.
C. This rule for the input chain states that any TCP traffic from any address destined for any IP address and to port 12345 is to be denied.
D. This rule for the output chain states that any TCP traffic from any address destined for any IP address and to port 12345 is to be denied.
E. This rule for the input chain states that all TCP packets inbound from any network destined to any network is to be denied for ports 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5.
300-180 pdf Answer: C
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[Hottest Questions] Most Important Cisco 300-101 Dumps Practice Exam New Questions Implementing Cisco IP Routing [Video]

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What is the best way to pass the Cisco 300-135 exam?”Implementing Cisco IP Routing” also known as 300-101 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Pass4itsure Cisco 300-101 dumps exam questions answers are updated (484 Q&As) are verified by experts. Most important Cisco 300-101 dumps practice exam new questions Implementing Cisco IP Routing

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Exam Code: 300-101
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing
Q&As: 484

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Pass4isture Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-101 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 3
An engineer has configured a router to use EUI-64, and was asked to document the IPv6 address of the router. The router has the following interface parameters:
mac address C601.420F.0007
subnet 2001:DB8:0:1::/64
Which IPv6 addresses should the engineer add to the documentation?
A. 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FF:FE0F:7
B. 2001:DB8:0:1:FFFF:C601:420F:7
C. 2001:DB8:0:1:FE80:C601:420F:7
D. 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FE:800F:7
300-101  exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Extended Unique Identifier (EUI), as per RFC2373, allows a host to assign iteslf a unique 64-Bit IP Version 6 interface identifier (EUI-64). This feature is a key  benefit over IPv4 as it eliminates the need of manual configuration or DHCP as in the world of IPv4. The IPv6 EUI-64 format address is obtained through the 48-bit MAC address. The Mac address is first separated into two 24-bits, with one being OUI (Organizationally Unique Identifier) and the other being NIC specific. The
16-bit 0xFFFE is then inserted between these two 24-bits to for the 64-bit EUI address. IEEE has chosen FFFE as a reserved value which can only appear in EUI- 64 generated from the EUI-48 MAC address. Here is an example showing how the Mac Address is used to generate EUI.
300-101 dumps

Next, the seventh bit from the left, or the universal/local (U/L) bit, needs to be inverted. This bit identifies whether this interface identifier is universally or locally administered. If 0, the address is locally administered and if 1, the address is globally unique. It is worth noticing that in the OUI portion, the globally unique addresses assigned by the IEEE has always been set to 0 whereas the locally created addresses has 1 configured. Therefore, when the bit is inverted, it maintains its original scope (global unique address is still global unique and vice versa). The reason for inverting can be found in RFC4291 section 2.5.1.
QUESTION 4
For security purposes, an IPv6 traffic filter was configured under various interfaces on the local router. However, shortly after implementing the traffic filter, OSPFv3 neighbor adjacencies were lost. What caused this issue?
A. The traffic filter is blocking all ICMPv6 traffic.
B. The global anycast address must be added to the traffic filter to allow OSPFv3 to work properly.
C. The link-local addresses that were used by OSPFv3 were explicitly denied, which caused the neighbor relationships to fail.
D. IPv6 traffic filtering can be implemented only on SVIs.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
OSPFv3 uses link-local IPv6 addresses for neighbor discovery and other features, so if any IPv6 traffic filters are implemented be sure to include the link local address so that it is permitted in the filter list.
QUESTION 5
What is the purpose of the autonomous-system {autonomous-system-number} command?
A. It sets the EIGRP autonomous system number in a VRF.
B. It sets the BGP autonomous system number in a VRF.
C. It sets the global EIGRP autonomous system number.
D. It sets the global BGP autonomous system number.
300-101 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To configure the autonomous-system number for an Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) routing process to run within a VPN routing and forwarding (VRF) instance, use the autonomous-system command in address-family configuration mode. To remove the autonomous-system for an EIGRP routing process from within a VPN VRF instance, use the no form of this command. autonomous-system autonomous-system-number no autonomous-system autonomous-system-number
QUESTION 6
Which type of traffic does DHCP snooping drop?
A. discover messages
B. DHCP messages where the source MAC and client MAC do not match
C. traffic from a trusted DHCP server to client
D. DHCP messages where the destination MAC and client MAC do not match
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The switch validates DHCP packets received on the untrusted interfaces of VLANs with DHCP snooping enabled. The switch forwards the DHCP packet unless any of the following conditions occur (in which case the packet is dropped): The switch receives a packet (such as a DHCPOFFER, DHCPACK, DHCPNAK, or DHCPLEASEQUERY packet) from a DHCP server outside the network or firewall. The switch receives a packet on an untrusted interface, and the source MAC address and the DHCP client hardware address do not match. This check is performed only if the DHCP snooping MAC address verification option is turned on. · The switch receives a DHCPRELEASE or DHCPDECLINE message from an untrusted host with an entry in the DHCP snooping binding table, and the interface information in the binding table does not match the interface on which the message was received. The switch receives a DHCP packet that includes a relay agent IP address that is not 0.0.0.0. To support trusted edge switches that are connected to untrusted aggregation-switch ports, you can enable the DHCP option-82 on untrusted port feature, which enables untrusted aggregation- switch ports to accept DHCP packets that include option-82 information. Configure the port on the edge switch that connects to the aggregation switch as a trusted port. 
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101 dumps

Which command only announces the 1.2.3.0/24 network out of FastEthernet 0/0?
A. distribute list 1 out
B. distribute list 1 out FastEthernet0/0
C. distribute list 2 out
D. distribute list 2 out FastEthernet0/0
300-101 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Access list 2 is more specific, allowing only 1.2.3.0/24, whereas access list 1 permits all 1.0.0.0/8 networks. This question also asks us to apply this distribute list only to the outbound direction of the fast Ethernet 0/0 interface, so the correct command is “distribute list 2 out FastEthernet0/0.”

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Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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Question: 40
Amy is a sales person for your company and she earns her pay based on commission. Amy’s pay is known as variable pay or what other term?
A. Fixed pay
B. Commission only
C. Base pay
D. At risk pay
210-260 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
Amy’s pay is a variable pay because her level of income is based on how well she sells. When an employee is paid a variable pay it is also known as “at risk pay.”Answer option C is incorrect. Base pay is a fixed amount of pay for doing a job. Amy’s pay varies and isn’t fixed. Answer option A is incorrect. Fixed pay isn’t technically a HR Professional term, though it’s often
used with base pay. Answer option B is incorrect. Commission only pay is a slang to describe “at risk pay” or variable pay.
Question: 41
Jennifer is the HR Professional for her organization. Her supervisor, Dan, has asked Jennifer to find the Compa-ratio for Sam. Sam earns $40,000 as a mechanic, but the midpoint for a mechanic is actually $50,000. What is the Compa-ratio for Sam?
A. -$10,000
B. 80 percent
C. 125 percent
D. $10,000
Answer: B
Explanation:
The compa-ratio helps organizations determine how closely an employee’s pay is in synch with market. You must also consider the length of employment, service, skills, and other factors in the decision for compensation. The ratio is found by dividing the employees’ salary ($40,000) by the midpoint for the role ($50,000) for the ratio of 80 percent. Answer options A, D, and C are incorrect. These are not valid calculations for the compa-ratio.
Question: 42
You are a HR Professional for your organization. You have presented an idea to your staff. The staff members then discuss their ideas based on your presentation. All of the ideas are recorded and collectively ranked from most important to least important (or some other ordinal scale). Through this process a selection or forecast can be made for the organization. What forecasting technique have you used in this scenario?
A. Nominal group technique
B. Ratio analysis
C. Brainstorming
D. Delphi Technique
210-260 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
The nominal group technique is a facilitated workshop to present an idea, allow brainstorming of additional ideas, and then the solutions are ranked by the group. A forecast can then be created based on the outcome of the exercise. Answer option C is incorrect. This is more than just brainstorming as brainstorming does not begin with a presented idea or a ranking of ideas to predict an outcome. Answer option D is incorrect. The Delphi Technique uses rounds of anonymous surveys to build
consensus. Answer option B is incorrect. Ratio analysis is a mathematical forecasting technique using two or more variables to predict a likely outcome.
Question: 43
Which of the following are narrative methods of appraisal that require managers to describe the employee’s performance? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Daily review
B. Field review
C. Essay review
D. Critical incident review
Answer: D, B, and C
Explanation:
The narrative methods of appraisal that require managers to describe the employee’s performance are as follows:
1.Critical incident review
2.Field review
3.Essay review
The critical incident review requires that during the review period supervisors make notes of successful and unsuccessful performance issues for each employee. A field review appraisal may be conducted by someone other than the supervisor. This can be a person from outside the organization. In the essay review, the reviewer has to write a short description about each employee’s performance during the year. Answer option A is incorrect. There is no such narrative method of appraisal as daily review.
Question: 44
There are seven stages of internal consulting that an HR Professional must be familiar with. Consider this scenario: Frances has developed an HR training plan for her organization. The plan is comprehensive, aggressive, and will provide organizational development for all levels of employees in the company. Frances is presenting her plan to her organization’s management. What level of internal consulting is Fran participating in?
A. Reviewing, transitioning, and evaluating the project
B. Gaining agreement to the project plan
C. Presenting the findings and recommendations
D. Exploring the situation
210-260 pdf Answer: B
Explanation:
Frances is meeting with the management to gain their agreement on the project plan. The plan has not yet been approved.
Answer option C is incorrect. This choice is tempting, but as the plan is not yet approved, this choice is invalid. Answer option A is incorrect. This is the final stage of internal consulting; since the plan has not yet been implemented, this choice is incorrect. Answer option D is incorrect. Exploring the situation is the first stage of internal consulting. Once the HR Professional moves past this phase, the plan is developed and presented for approval.
Question: 45
Heather’s organization works with a labor union work force. Heather has heard rumors that the union has been trying to create a hot cargo agreement with a supplier. What is a hot cargo agreement?
A. It’s an agreement that an employer will stop doing business with a non-union business.
B. It’s a threat that the union will slow down processing orders for non-union shops.
C. It’s an agreement to rush orders for union-based businesses.
D. It forces suppliers to join the union.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A hot cargo agreement is an agreement an employer makes to stop doing business with other, usually non-union based businesses. Answer options D, B, and C are incorrect. These are’nt valid definitions of a hot cargo agreement.

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Q&As: 85

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QUESTION NO: 21
Which one of the following file types cannot be imported to Visual RF Plan?
A. dwg
B. jpg
C. tiff
D. gif
E. bmp
200-155 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 22
Aruba’s recommended best option for authenticating guest users is:
A. Temporary employee account
B. Kerberos
C. Captive Portal
D. Windows logon
E. Email address
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 23
Aliases are used in firewall policies to:
A. Apply firewall polices to ports in a stateful manner
B. Make firewall rules act like traditional ACLs
C. Ease readability and maintainability for source and destination addresses
D. Are a part of roles, not the firewall
E. Are applied as an action in a rule
200-155 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 24
An Aruba AP 125 is capable of supporting which of the following network types? (Select three)
A. 802.11b
B. 802.11n
C. 802.11a
D. 802.11w
E. 802.11p
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 25
What does SET ORIENTATION option do in the Visual RF Plan edit tool?
A. Set the horizontal plane on each floor
B. Give the option to resize a floor
C. Sets the North/South orientation of the building
D. Sets the proper vertical floor plan alignment
E. Allows the planner to set the directional antenna orientation
200-155 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 26
Which of the following is true of an Aruba Mobility Controller acting as a layer 3 router? (Select two):
A. The Mobility Controller is the client’s default router.
B. The Mobility Controller acts as a bridge.
C. DHCP can be provided by the network infrastructure or the Mobility Controller.
D. The Mobility Controller supports BGP.
E. OSPF must be configured
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 27
Which of these is NOT a valid license type? (Select two)
A. RFprotect
B. Application Security
C. Base AOS
D. PEF NG
E. Content Security
200-155 vce Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 28
In a Campus AP deployment, an access point has been provisioned statically with an IP address, subnet mask, default gateway and Controller IP address. Control Plane Security has been disabled. Both the Controller and the Access Point are using 6.1 firmware. If a 3rd party firewall is placed in between the AP and controller, what traffic would need to be allowed for the AP to boot successfully and broadcast Wireless Networks? (Select two)
A. DHCP
B. PAPI
C. GRE
D. SNMP
E. NTP
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 29
Web based captive portal can be authenticated by the following types of databases: (Select two)
A. Internal
B. PEAP
C. RADIUS
D. Kerberos
E. Tacacs
200-155 exam Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO 30
Why should the number of services on a server be limited to required services?
A. Every open service represents a potential vulnerability.
B. Closed systems require special connectivity services.
C. Running extra services makes machines more efficient.
D. All services are inherently stable and secure.
E. Additional services make machines more secure.
Answer:A
QUESTION NO 31
intrusion detection involves comparing traffic to known characteristics of malicious traffic, known as attack signatures.
A. Pattern matching B.
Statistical anomaly C.
Behavioral analysis D.
Host
E. Network
Answer:A
QUESTION NO 32
Which of the following calculations is used when selecting countermeasures?
A. Annualized Rate of Occurrence
B. Single Loss Expectancy
C. Annualized Loss Expectancy
D. Business Impact Analysis
E. Business Continuity Plan
200-155 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO 33
Which tool can be used to view the logical and physical topology of an MDS SAN?
A. Switch Manager
B. Device Manager
C. EWS
D. Fabric Manager
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34
What describes External DAS?
A. Host provided content addressed objects
B. Host provided data addressing
C. Array provided global access volumes
D. Array provided device management
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 35
What are the five core elements of the data center infrastructure?
A. Applications, Databases, JBOD, Networks, Storage Arrays
B. Applications, Databases, Servers/Operating Systems, SAN, JBOD
C. Applications, Databases, Servers/Operating Systems, DAS, NAS
D. Applications, Databases, Servers/Operating Systems, Networks, Storage Arrays
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36
Which technology supports high availability of data?
A. Clustering
B. Flushing
C. Journaling
D. Caching
200-155 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
Which task is an example of monitoring the health of a data center object?
A. Viewing rates of data transmission of all disks
B. Detecting when a file system has reached critical utilization
C. Examining the operational status of a device port
D. Listing the servers attached to a particular storage array
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
A company has two SAN islands approximately one mile apart. The company wants to link both sites over its public WAN connection. The fabrics must remain separate but allow device access from either site. Which protocol is recommended to connect the sites?
A. FCIP
B. FCP
C. iFCP
D. iSCSI
200-155 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39
What are the three key data center management activities that are interdependent?
A. Manageability, Integrity, Cost
B. Provisioning, Monitoring, Reporting
C. Installation, Configuration, Problem Solving
D. Scalability, Accessibility, Security
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40
A Copy on First Access replica has been created. The source devices are being used for production operations. When is data copied from the source to the target?
A. A read or write issued for the first time to a location on the source
B. A write issued for the first time to a location on the source
C. All I/Os issued to a location on the source
D. A read issued for the first time from a location on the source
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
Which statement describes logical volumes?
A. May consist of interleaved physical disks
B. May be a partition of a larger physical disk
C. May be presented to a host as several larger physical disks
D. May consist of several file systems
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
What is a physical component of a storage environment?
A. Bus
B. Application
C. Operating system
D. Protocol
Correct Answer: A

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Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 118

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QUESTION 23
Identify the injection attack represented in the diagram below:
A. XPath Injection Attack
B. XML Request Attack
C. XML Injection Attack
D. Frame Injection Attack
300-135 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
Which of the following approaches to vulnerability assessment relies on the administrator providing baseline of system configuration and then scanning continuously without incorporating any information found at the time of scanning?
A. Service-based Assessment Solutions
B. Product-based Assessment Solutions
C. Tree-based Assessment
D. Inference-based Assessment
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
The Web parameter tampering attack is based on the manipulation of parameters exchanged between client and server in order to modify application data, such as user credentials and permissions, price and quantity of products, etc. Usually, this information is stored in cookies, hidden form fields, or URL Query Strings, and is used to increase application functionality and control. This attack takes advantage of the fact that many programmers rely on hidden or fixed fields (such as a hidden tag in a form or a parameter in a URL) as the only security measure for certain operations. Attackers can easily modify these parameters to bypass the security mechanisms that rely on them. What is the best way to protect web applications from parameter tampering attacks?
A. Validating some parameters of the web application
B. Minimizing the allowable length of parameters
C. Using an easily guessable hashing algorithm
D. Applying effective input field filtering parameters
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Vulnerability assessment is an examination of the ability of a system or application, including the current security procedures and controls, to withstand assault.
What does a vulnerability assessment identify?
A. Disgruntled employees
B. Weaknesses that could be exploited
C. Physical security breaches
D. Organizational structure
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
This is a group of people hired to give details of the vulnerabilities present in the system found after a penetration test. They are elite and extremely competent penetration testers and intrusion analysts. This team prepares a report on the vulnerabilities in the system, attack methods, and how to defend against them.
What is this team called?
A. Blue team
B. Tiger team
C. Gorilla team
D. Lion team
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
ARP spoofing is a technique whereby an attacker sends fake (“spoofed”) Address Resolution Protocol
(ARP) messages onto a Local Area Network. Generally, the aim is to associate the attacker’s MAC
address with the IP address of another host (such as the default gateway), causing any traffic meant for
that IP address to be sent to the attacker instead. ARP spoofing attack is used as an opening for other
attacks.
What type of attack would you launch after successfully deploying ARP spoofing?
A. Parameter Filtering
B. Social Engineering
C. Input Validation
D. Session Hijacking
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
Amazon Consulting Corporation provides penetration testing and managed security services to companies. Legality and regulatory compliance is one of the important components in conducting a successful security audit. Before starting a test, one of the agreements both the parties need to sign relates to limitations, constraints, liabilities, code of conduct, and indemnification considerations between the parties. Which agreement requires a signature from both the parties (the penetration tester and the company)?
A. Non-disclosure agreement
B. Client fees agreement
C. Rules of engagement agreement
D. Confidentiality agreement
300-135 vce Correct Answer: D
 QUESTION 30
QinQ provides a simplified Layer 2 VPN tunnel.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
Which statements about QinQ are true? (Select 2 Answers)
A. QinQ saves VLANs on the public network.
B. To avoid VLAN conflict, the customer must negotiate with the service provider before modifying the
VLANs on its private network.
C. When the service provider upgrades the network, the configurations on the user network do not need to
be modified.
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 32
Some vendors set the TPID value in the outer VLAN tag of QinQ packets to the non-protocol value.
To be compatible with these vendors’ devices, the TPID value on Huawei switches is adjustable.
Which is the default value of the TPID value on Huawei switches?
A. 0x9200
B. 0x9100
C. 0x8200
D. 0x8100
300-135 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
Which types of interfaces can be configured with selective QinQ? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Access interface
B. Trunk interface
C. Hybrid interface
D. dot1q-tunnel interface
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 34
The STP protocol can prevent broadcast storms caused by loops on the Layer 2 network.
A. True
B. False
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
The STP protocol cannot prevent MAC address table flapping caused by loops on the Layer 2 network.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
Which are the port roles defined in STP?
A. Root Port
B. Designated Port
C. Alternate Port
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
How many port states are defined by STP?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
Each STP switch has a unique switch ID. Which two entries does the switch ID contain?
A. Two-byte switch priority
B. Six-byte MAC address
C. Two-byte switch priority and six-byte MAC address
D. Six-byte switch priority and six-byte MAC address
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39
On an STP network, before the interface status transits from non-forwarding to forwarding, how many
Forward Delay intervals does the interface wait for?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
300-135 vce Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: 640-911
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking
Updated: Aug 23, 2017
Q&As: 208

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QUESTION 13
What are two features of a bridge? (Choose two.)
A. Reliable transmission
B. Operate at OSI Layer 2
C. Operate at OSI Layer 3
D. Create multiple broadcast domains
E. Create multiple collision domains
F. Flood input packets to all ports
G. Drop IP packets with invalid destination ports
640-911 examCorrect Answer: BE
QUESTION 14
What are three reasons that switches supersede bridges? (Choose three.)
A. Smaller frame buffers decrease latency.
B. Forward, filter, or flood frames.
C. Multiple simultaneous communications between ports.
D. Larger inspection engine allows for higher throughput.
E. Switches have many ports.
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 15
What action does a switch take if the destination MAC address is unknown?
A. Discard frame
B. Send ICMP unreachable message to source
C. Flood packet on all ports
D. Compare destination IP address against an ACL to determine if it is permitted
E. Send gratuitous ARP on all ports and wait for reply before forwarding
640-911 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
Which statement describes the purpose of the MAC address forwarding table of a switch?
A. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine the best route to a destination.
B. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine the output port.
C. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine if the packet is routable.
D. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine if access control permits the packet.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
What are two attributes of a VLAN? (Choose two.)
A. A VLAN defines a collision domain.
B. A VLAN defines a broadcast domain.
C. Broadcasts are flooded to all VLANs.
D. Collisions are flooded to all VLANs.
E. A Layer 3 device is required to route packets between VLANs.
F. A Layer 2 device is required to route packets between VLANs.
640-911 pdf Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 18
Which four statements indicate unique properties of VLAN 1 on Cisco Nexus switches? (Choose four.)
A. VLAN 1 is used to flood multicast traffic.
B. VLAN 1 cannot be deleted.
C. VLAN 1 is used for Cisco Discovery Protocol.
D. VLAN 1 is used for VTP advertisements.
E. VLAN 1 defines a collision domain.
F. VLAN 1 defines a broadcast domain.
Correct Answer: BCDF
QUESTION 19
Which command displays the Trunking Native Mode VLAN on port Ethernet 1/18?
A. show running-config switchport e1/18
B. show running-config e1/18 switchport
C. show interface e1/18
D. show interface e1/18 switchport
E. show interface e1/18 native
640-911 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
Which VTP mode disallows the creation of local VLANs?
A. transparent
B. tunneling
C. server
D. client
E. off
F. native
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
Which three statements are true concerning RFC 1918 IP addresses? (Choose three.)
A. They are globally routable.
B. They are not globally routable.
C. They must not be filtered at Internet border interfaces.
D. They should be filtered at Internet border interfaces.
E. They include 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/16, and 192.168.1.0/24.
F. They include 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/12, and 192.168.0.0/16.
640-911 exam Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 22
Which two statements describe the purpose of RFC 1918? (Choose two.)
A. Establish a range of IP addresses that are dedicated to the growing use of multicast video.
B. Establish a range of IP addresses that are dedicated to the growing use of peer-to-peer file- sharing
applications.
C. Establish a range of IP addresses that are dedicated to use on internal networks.
D. Establish a range of IP addresses to address the shrinking pool of globally routable addresses.
E. Delay the transition to IPv6.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 23
What are three reasons to migrate from IPv4 to IPv6? (Choose three.)
A. IPv6 eliminates the requirement for NAT.
B. IPv6 includes enough IP addresses to allocate more than four billion IP addresses to every person on
earth.
C. IPv6 eliminates the need for VLANs.
D. Hosts can be assigned an IP address without DHCP.
E. Hosts can be assigned an IP address without DNS.
640-911 dumps Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 24
Which two options describe services that are provided by TCP? (Choose two.)
A. session multiplexing
B. EtherTypes identify destination services
C. connection-oriented
D. best-effort packet delivery
E. binary translation
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 25
Which two options describe services that are provided by UDP? (Choose two.)
A. session multiplexing
B. segmentation
C. connection-oriented
D. reliable packet delivery
E. best-effort packet delivery
640-911 pdf Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 26
Which two options represent a subnet mask that allows for a maximum of 14 available host addresses on a
subnet? (Choose two.)
A. 255.255.255.240
B. 255.255.255.192
C. 255.255.240.0
D. 255.255.192.0
E. /14
F. /21
G. /26
H. /28
Correct Answer: AH
QUESTION 27
What is the binary value of the hexadecimal number 0x511?
A. 10100011001
B. 10101010101
C. 10110010001
D. 10100010001
E. 10100110011
640-911 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
What is the binary value of the decimal number 1263?
A. 11011101101
B. 10011101111
C. 10011101011
D. 11010001111
E. 10111101111
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
Which option is an example of a distance vector routing protocol?
A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. ARP
D. IS-IS
640-911 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
Which option is an example of an advanced distance vector routing protocol?
A. EIGRP
B. RIP
C. OSPF
D. ARP
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
Which option is an example of a link-state routing protocol?
A. EIGRP
B. RIP
C. OSPF
D. ARP
640-911 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
What is the maximum allowable hop count for RIPv1?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 15
E. 16
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
What is the default periodic interval at which RIPv1 sends routing updates?
A. 15 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 45 seconds
D. 60 seconds
E. 90 seconds
F. RIPv1 only sends routing updates when the topology changes.
640-911 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
What does RIPv1 send to its neighbors?
A. Information about changed routes
B. Information about new routes
C. The entire routing table
D. Information about deleted routes
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 35
What are two advantages of employing an external router for inter-VLAN routing over an IEEE 802.1Q
trunk link? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 3 functionality is not required on the switch.
B. The router facilitates communication between VLANs.
C. The single traffic path is optimized.
D. Latency is reduced as packets leave the switch.
E. Equal-Cost Multipath is supported.
640-911 vce Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 36
Which statement correctly describes an SVI?
A. An SVI is a Layer 2 interface and uses a dynamic MAC address.
B. An SVI cannot have an IP address assigned to it.
C. An SVI provides Layer 3 routing between VLANs.
D. Each switch port requires an SVI assignment.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 37
What is the Cisco Nexus Operating System command to define a port as a Layer 3 port?
A. Port routed
B. No switchport
C. l3 switchport
D. Port switching off
640-911 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
Which statement is correct regarding a routed port on a multilayer switch?
A. A routed port requires an SVI definition.
B. Routed ports cannot be configured on a multilayer switch that uses SVIs.
C. A maximum of 32 routed ports can be provisioned on a given multilayer switch.
D. A routed port is a physical port that supports Layer 3 routing.
640-911 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39
On a new Cisco Nexus switch, you receive an error message when you attempt to create an SVI. What is
the first command you must use to create the SVI?
A. Interface vlan (vlan_id)
B. Vlan (vlan_id)
C. Feature svi
D. Interface routed
Correct Answer: A

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[Hottest Cisco Questions From Google Drive] Pass Most Important Cisco WITSHOOT 300-370 Dumps Exam Easily | Real 300-370 PDF Demo Free Download for CCNP Wireless Video Series

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Exam Code: 300-370
Exam Name: Troubleshooting Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks
Updated: Aug 16, 2017
Q&As: 60

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300-370 dumps

Pass4isture Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-370 Dumps Exam Q&As:

Topic 1, Volume A
QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?
A. Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests
B. Menu-driven range of self help and service requests
C. Web front-end
D. A direct interface into the back end process handling software
300-370 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 2
What is a RACI model used for?
A. Defining roles and responsibilities
B. Monitoring services
C. Performance analysis
D. Recording Configuration Items
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
B. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management
Databases (CMDB)
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
300-370 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 4
The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called
the?
A. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
B. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 5
In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management,
Availability Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?
A. Service Transition
B. Service Design
C. Service Strategy
D. Service Operation
300-370 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 6
Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill
tominimize the cost of training them
B. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more
technical or supervisory roles
C. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements
are low and this helps to minimize salaries
D. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost
effective to keep them in the role where they have been trained
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 7
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management
Databases (CMDB)
B. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
C. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
300-370 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 8
Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service
Asset?
A. Services and Infrastructure
B. Applications and Infrastructure
C. Resources and Capabilities
D. Utility and Warranty
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 9
Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?
A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
B. The design of Market Spaces
C. The design of new or changed services
D. The design of the technology architecture and management systems
300-370 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 10
Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
B. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service
Portfolio
D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 11
Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning
Contracts?
A. Service Catalogue Manager
B. IT Designer/Architect
C. Process Manager
D. Supplier Manager
300-370 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 12
Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across the Lifecycle?
A. 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D
B. 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B
C. 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
D. 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 13
A plan for managing the end of a supplier contract should be created when?
A. The contract is being negotiated
B. The contract is about to be ended
C. The Supplier Manager decides that there is a risk the contract might need to end soon
D. The contract has been agreed
300-370 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 14
Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A. A change to the service provider’s established policies and guidelines
B. A pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedure
C. A change that is made as the result of an audit
D. A change that correctly follows the required change process
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 15
The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
C. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
D. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
300-370 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 16
Which of the following module would be MOST useful in helping to define an organizational
structure?
A. RACI model
B. Service Model
C. Continual Service improvement (CSI) model.
D. The Deming Cycle
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 17
Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill
tominimize the cost of training them
B. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost
effective to keep them in the role where they have been trained
C. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more
technical or supervisory roles
D. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements
are low and this helps to minimize salaries
300-370 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 18
Which of the following questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
1. How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
2. What services to offer and to whom?
3. What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
A. 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 19
Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the
business by?
A. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for
B. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased
C. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
D. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database
300-370 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 20
How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?
A. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
B. There should be a single Plan,then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times
to implement Continual Improvement
C. There should be a single Plan and Do,then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times
to implement Continual Improvement
D. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 21
Within the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) 7 step improvement process, data needs to be
gathered and analyzed from which other area of the lifecycle in order to answer the question “Did
we get there?”?
A. Service Strategy
B. Service Design
C. Service Operation
D. Service Transition
300-370 pdf Answer: C

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[Hottest Questions] The Best Youtube Latest Cisco 200-125 Dumps PDF Questions And Answers

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QUESTION 1
What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses.
B. They are less costly than public IP addresses.
C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.
D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies.
E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
Which command can you enter to display the operational status of the network ports on a router?
A. show interface switchport
B. show ip interface brief
C. show running-config interface fastethernet 0/1
D. show interface status
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. 200-125 pdf
200-125 dumps
The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem? 200-125 dumps
A. The OSPF area is not configured properly.
B. The priority on R1 should be set higher.
C. The cost on R1 should be set higher.
D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.
E. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network.
F. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which function does IP SLA ICMP ECHO operation perform to assist with troubleshooting
A. packet-loss detection
B. congestion detection
C. hop-by-hop response time
D. one way jitter measurement
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three.)
A. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length.
B. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
C. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field.
D. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
E. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers.
F. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 6
How to see dhcp conflict?
A. show ip dhcp pool
B. show dhcp database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which Cisco platform can verify ACLs? 200-125 pdf
A. Cisco Prime Infrastructure
B. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
C. Cisco APIC-EM
D. Cisco IOS-XE
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which type of mac address is aged automatically by the switch?
A. Dynamic
B. Static
C. automatic
D. manual
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which major component of the network virtualization architecture isolate users according to policy? 200-125 dumps
A. policy enforcement
B. network access control
C. network services virtualization
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
If a router has 3 hosts connected in one port and two other hosts connected in another port, how may broadcast domains are present on the router?
A. 5
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Under normal operations, cisco recommends that you configure switch ports on which vlan?
A. on the default vlan
B. on the management vlan
C. on the native vlan
D. on any vlan except the default vlan
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.)
A. exactly one active router
B. one or more standby routers
C. one or more backup virtual routers
D. exactly one standby active router
E. exactly one backup virtual router
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13
Which three statements about static routing are true? (Choose three.) 200-125 pdf
A. It uses consistent route determination.
B. It is best used for small-scale deployments.
C. Routing is disrupted when links fail.
D. It requires more resources than other routing methods.
E. It is best used for large-scale deployments.
F. Routers can use update messages to reroute when links fail.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 14
Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1? 200-125 dumps
A. the switch with the highest MAC address
B. the switch with the lowest MAC address
C. the switch with the highest IP address
D. the switch with the lowest IP address
Correct Answer: B

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I Have More Understanding on 2017 New Cisco CCENT v3 100-105 Dumps PDF Video Training

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It says at the top that the v2.0 tests are being revised to v3.0. Currently you can take either one, but only until August 20th (200-120 & 100-101) or September 24th (200-101).

Also, the CCNA can be taken as either one combined test (called CCNA) or two separate tests called ICND1 and ICND2.

Exam Code: 100-105
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Updated: Apr 26, 2017
Q&As: 239
Exam Information: http://www.pass4itsure.com/100-105.html

100-105 dumps is the ICND1 v3.0 test. It’s the first half of the new version of the CCNA. 200-105 is ICND2 v3.0. It’s the second half of the new version.

Cisco 100-105 Dumps APPLICATIONS

  • Multiroom IP Audio System Receiver
  • Internet Radio Receiver
  • Instore Audio Player
  • SIP and IP Paging Zone Device
  • Digital Annunciator, Message Player, Message Repeater
  • Generic VoIP decoder for IP Paging and Announcement applications
  • Commercial Audio Streaming Applications

You’ll need both for the CCNA certification!

100-105 dumps
♥♥Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 100-105 Dumps Exam Q&As♥♥

Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which two files are generated by the BlackBerry Desktop Manager during synchronization with advanced logging enabled? (Choose two.)
A. Dmtrace.log
B. Jvm.log
C. Tiff.log
D. Pttrace.log
E. Sync.log

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
Since upgrading the BlackBerry Device Software, a BlackBerry device user is reporting that custom audio notifications are no longer configured. Which two of the following options may resolve the issue? (Choose two.)
A. Synchronize using BlackBerry Desktop Manager to import any pre-existing custom audio profiles
B. Create a new Audio Profile in BlackBerry Desktop Manager Media Manager and import it with the application loader tool
C. Manually recreate the lost notifications in the Profiles application of the BlackBerry device
D. If a backup file was created in BlackBerry Desktop Manager, restoring the Options database will restore custom profiles
E. Download new ring tone content from the service provider and install using the BlackBerry Browser

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 3
A BlackBerry device user does not possess an organizer application like Microsoft Outlook. Which translator will work for them to obtain a copy of their contacts and calendar on the computer with BlackBerry Desktop Manager? (Choose one.)
A. Plain Text
B. ASCII text
C. CSV
D. Notepad
E. Wordpad

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A BlackBerry device user filtered message count in the BlackBerry Administration Service is increasing and no email messages are being forwarded to the BlackBerry device. Which of the following may be the cause of this? (Choose one.)
A. The user does not have sufficient wireless coverage
B. The BlackBerry device setting for f no filters apply, send email to handheld is set to No The BlackBerry device setting for if no filters apply, send email to handheld is set to No
C. The user has not been provisioned for Enterprise services
D. The user mail client rules/policies are interfering with message delivery The user mail client rules/ policies are interfering with message delivery
E. The service books on the BlackBerry device are corrupt

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which two of the following processes can determine the current build version of BlackBerry Desktop Manager that is installed? (Choose two.)
A. Right click the BlackBerry Desktop Manager icon on the desktop and review properties
B. Open BlackBerry Desktop Manager > Help > About Desktop Manager
C. Launch the BlackBerry Desktop Manager application and look at the title bar at the top of the application
D. Open Control panel > Add / remove programs > Select Desktop Manager and choose lick here for support info in Windows
E. Look on the BlackBerry Desktop Manager CD

Correct Answer: BD 100-105 dumps 

QUESTION 6
Which of the following components must be selected during a custom install of BlackBerry Desktop Software for S/MIME and Wi-Fi support? (Choose one.)
A. S/MIME Support Package
B. BlackBerry device software
C. BlackBerry Security support package
D. Certificate Synchronization
E. BlackBerry advanced networking support

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two of the following media card settings on the BlackBerry device need to be turned on to copy files between Windows Explorer and the media card? (Choose two.)
A. Media Card Support
B. USB Flash Drive Bypass Mode
C. Mass Storage Mode Support
D. USB Dongle Support
E. Auto Enable Mass Storage Mode When Connected

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
What is taking place at the Verifying Encryption stage of the wireless enterprise activation process? (Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry device and BlackBerry Enterprise Server are negotiating a master encryption key
B. All personal information on the BlackBerry device is being compressed, encrypted and sent over the wireless network to the BlackBerry
C. All settings on the BlackBerry device are being verified by the BlackBerry Enterprise Server for security considerations
D. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server is sending service book information to the BlackBerry device
E. The BlackBerry device is scanning the BlackBerry Enterprise Server settings for security considerations
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 9

If the BlackBerry device is displaying a lower case edge connection status, which two of the following actions can a BlackBerry device user perform on the BlackBerry device? (Choose two.)
A. Browse the Internet
B. Send or receive email messages
C. Send or receive SMS messages
D. Send or receive PIN messages
E. Make or receive phone calls

Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 10
Which of the following will resolve a VM 517 error (Choose one.)Which of the following will resolve a VM 517 error (Choose one.)
A. Removing and re-inserting the BlackBerry device battery
B. Performing a security wipe
C. Setting appropriate content store permissions
D. Reinstalling the BlackBerry Device Software using the application loader tool
E. Removing and re-seating the BlackBerry device SIM Card Removing and re-seating the BlackBerry device SIM Card

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which two of the following are types of searches that can be performed in the BTSC? (Choose two.)
A. Targeted
B. Software assisted
C. Boolean
D. Natural Language
E. Choice Focused

Correct Answer: CD

100-105 dumps

The Pass4itsure linked is the textbook for the 100-105 dumps ICND1 v3.0 test. That’ll help you for that test. You’ll still need a separate book to study for the 200-105 ICND2 v3.0 test to get the CCNA certification. The Pass4itsure are also available as a set.

(edit): the test 100-105 dumps you mention, the 100-101, is the ICND1 v2.0 test. That’s the old version, that’s gone next month, of the first half test. (edit edit): Corrected. August and September are actually different months than July, and occur at separate points in the future.

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